Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1081: Hematuria in previous LSCS patient indicates -

A. Placenta previa
B. No significant findings
C. Urinary tract infection (Correct Answer)
D. Rupture uterus

Explanation: ***Urinary tract infection*** - Hematuria in a patient with a previous **LSCS** (Lower Segment Caesarean Section) is a common symptom of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)**, as pregnancy itself, and sometimes a previous C-section, can increase UTI risk. - While a previous LSCS might alter pelvic anatomy, a UTI is a more direct and common cause of hematuria in this scenario than other obstetrical complications. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** primarily causes **painless vaginal bleeding** in the second or third trimester due to the placenta covering the cervical os, not hematuria directly from the urinary tract. - While bleeding might be significant, it originates from the uterus, not the bladder, and is typically bright red vaginal bleeding. *No significant findings* - **Hematuria** is a significant finding that warrants investigation, as it indicates blood in the urine and is never considered "no significant finding." - It could be a sign of various underlying conditions, ranging from benign to serious, necessitating evaluation. *Rupture uterus* - **Uterine rupture** is a catastrophic event in pregnancy, often presenting with **severe abdominal pain**, fetal distress, and significant **vaginal bleeding**, not isolated hematuria. - While it's a serious complication, the blood would primarily be from the uterus or internal hemorrhage, not directly in the urine.

Question 1082: Which of the following is not a cause of hematoma during labor?

A. Extension of cervical laceration
B. Rupture of paravaginal venous plexus
C. Improper haemostasis
D. Obliteration of dead space while suturing vaginal wall (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Obliteration of dead space while suturing vaginal wall*** - This action actually **prevents hematoma formation** by ensuring proper coaptation of tissues and eliminating potential spaces for blood collection. - Good surgical technique, including **obliterating dead space**, is crucial for achieving effective hemostasis and wound healing. *Improper haemostasis* - **Inadequate control of bleeding** from blood vessels during or after delivery can lead to blood accumulation and hematoma formation. - This can be due to **insufficient ligation of vessels** or failure to adequately compress bleeding sites. *Extension of cervical laceration* - An **unrepaired or inadequately repaired cervical laceration** can continue to bleed, and if the bleeding is concealed, it can form a hematoma. - The rich vascular supply of the cervix makes it a significant source of potential blood loss if injured. *Rupture of paravaginal venous plexus* - The **paravaginal venous plexus** can be traumatized or ruptured during labor, especially with difficult deliveries, leading to significant bleeding into the surrounding tissues. - This often results in the formation of **pudendal or vulvovaginal hematomas**, which can be quite large and cause severe pain.

Question 1083: What percentage of women typically deliver on their Estimated Due Date (EDD)?

A. 15%
B. 5% (Correct Answer)
C. 20%
D. 10%

Explanation: ***5%*** - Only about **5% of women** deliver on their **exact Estimated Due Date (EDD)**. - The EDD is calculated using **Naegele's rule** (280 days from LMP) and serves as an **approximation** rather than a precise prediction. - Most women deliver within a **37-42 week window**, with the majority occurring in the **2 weeks before or after** the EDD. - This reflects the **natural biological variation** in pregnancy duration. *10%* - This percentage is **higher than the actual rate** of delivery on the exact EDD. - While 10% might seem plausible for deliveries within a few days of the EDD, it overestimates delivery on that specific date. *15%* - This percentage **significantly overestimates** the likelihood of delivering precisely on the EDD. - The probability of birth on one specific day out of a several-week delivery window is relatively low. *20%* - This is a substantial **overestimation** of the probability of delivering on the EDD. - The EDD represents a **single day** in a term pregnancy window (37-42 weeks), making such a high percentage statistically unlikely.

Question 1084: What maneuver is used to deliver the head of a baby during a breech delivery?

A. Pinards maneuver
B. Prague maneuver (Correct Answer)
C. Lovsets maneuver
D. Burn Marshall method

Explanation: ***Prague maneuver*** - The **Prague maneuver** is used to deliver the aftercoming fetal head in breech delivery when specific traction on the shoulders is needed. - **Prague I (or Prague-Veit)**: Used when the fetal **back is anterior** - the operator's fingers hook over the shoulders while traction is applied. - **Prague II**: Used when the fetal **back is posterior** - less commonly performed. - This maneuver involves supporting the fetal body while applying traction to the shoulders to facilitate head delivery. *Pinard's maneuver* - **Pinard's maneuver** is used to assist with the delivery of the fetal **legs** in a **frank or complete breech** presentation, not the head. - This maneuver involves flexing the hip and knee to bring down a foot, aiding in the delivery of the lower extremities. *Lovset's maneuver* - **Lovset's maneuver** is used during a breech delivery to assist with the delivery of the **shoulders by rotating the fetal trunk**. - It involves rotating the baby's trunk 180 degrees to bring the posterior shoulder anterior under the pubic symphysis, allowing for easier delivery of both arms and shoulders. *Burns-Marshall method* - The **Burns-Marshall method** is another technique used to deliver the aftercoming head in breech delivery. - It involves allowing the fetal body to hang by its own weight until the **nape of the neck and hairline appear** at the vulva, then lifting the body in an arc towards the mother's abdomen to deliver the head by flexion. - While this is also used for head delivery, the **Prague maneuver** involves more direct manual traction and is the answer expected for this examination context.

Question 1085: Bishop scoring is done for ?

A. Exchange transfusion in newborns
B. Newborn ventilation assessment
C. Newborn gestation assessment
D. Induction of labor assessment (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Induction of labor assessment*** - The **Bishop score** is a pre-labor scoring system used to assess the ripeness of the cervix. - A higher score indicates a more **favorable cervix** for the successful **induction of labor**. *Exchange transfusion in newborns* - **Exchange transfusion** is primarily indicated for severe hyperbilirubinemia or hemolytic disease in newborns. - Its assessment is based on **bilirubin levels** and other clinical factors, not the Bishop score. *Newborn ventilation assessment* - **Newborn ventilation assessment** involves evaluating respiratory effort, heart rate, and oxygenation status, often using scores like the **Apgar score**. - The Bishop score is unrelated to neonatal respiratory function. *Newborn gestation assessment* - **Newborn gestation assessment** is typically performed using methods like the **New Ballard Score** or by reviewing prenatal ultrasound dating. - The Bishop score is used in *maternal* obstetric management, not directly for neonatal gestational age estimation.

Question 1086: Which type of pelvis is most commonly associated with dystocia?

A. Android (Correct Answer)
B. Platypelloid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Anthropoid

Explanation: ***Android*** - The **android pelvis** has a **heart-shaped inlet** and converging side walls, which significantly increases the risk of **dystocia** due to restricted passage for the fetal head. - This pelvic shape is more common in men but can also be found in women, leading to a higher likelihood of **cephalopelvic disproportion**. *Platypelloid* - The **platypelloid pelvis** has a **flattened oval inlet** with a short anteroposterior diameter and a wide transverse diameter. - While it can lead to difficulties with engagement and rotation, it is not as commonly associated with severe dystocia as the android type, as the fetal head can often rotate to fit. *Gynaecoid* - The **gynaecoid pelvis** is considered the **ideal female pelvis** with a rounded or slightly oval inlet and well-proportioned diameters. - It is associated with the **easiest and most successful vaginal deliveries** and therefore is least likely to cause dystocia. *Anthropoid* - The **anthropoid pelvis** has an **oval inlet** with a long anteroposterior diameter and a relatively short transverse diameter. - While it can sometimes lead to an **occiput-posterior presentation**, it is not as strongly associated with dystocia as the android pelvis.

Question 1087: In the context of obstructed labor, which maternal pelvic parameter is considered the most critical for successful delivery?

A. Biparietal diameter
B. Bitemporal diameter
C. Diameter of pelvic outlet
D. Diameter of pelvic inlet (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Diameter of pelvic inlet*** - The **pelvic inlet** is typically the narrowest and most critical passage for the fetal head to engage and descend into the pelvis during labor. - An inadequate pelvic inlet diameter can lead to **cephalopelvic disproportion**, resulting in **obstructed labor** because the fetal head cannot enter the true pelvis. *Diameter of pelvic outlet* - While important for the final stages of labor, an inadequate **pelvic outlet** usually presents a problem only after the fetal head has successfully navigated the inlet and mid-pelvis. - Obstruction at the outlet is less common as the primary cause of prolonged or arrested first stage labor compared to an unyielding inlet. *Biparietal diameter* - The **biparietal diameter (BPD)** measures the widest transverse diameter of the fetal head, which is crucial but represents a fetal parameter. - While critical for assessing fetal head size in relation to the maternal pelvis, it is a fetal measurement, not a maternal pelvic parameter like the inlet. *Bitemporal diameter* - The **bitemporal diameter** is the shortest transverse diameter of the fetal head and is rarely the presenting issue in **obstructed labor**. - It is typically much smaller than the biparietal diameter and usually presents no obstacle to passage through the pelvis.

Question 1088: Which nerve block is commonly used in forceps delivery?

A. Pudendal (Correct Answer)
B. Ilioinguinal
C. Genitofemoral
D. Posterior femoral

Explanation: ***Pudendal*** - A **pudendal nerve block** provides anesthesia to the perineum, vulva, and lower vagina, which is crucial for pain control during a **forceps delivery** and any necessary episiotomy or repair. - The pudendal nerve carries sensory innervation from the areas that are manipulated and stretched during instrument-assisted vaginal delivery. *Ilioinguinal* - The **ilioinguinal nerve** innervates the skin of the groin, labia majora, and upper inner thigh, making its block useful for procedures like **inguinal herniorrhaphy** but not for deep perineal pain in delivery. - It does not provide adequate pain relief for the extensive perineal and vaginal stretching required for a forceps delivery. *Genitofemoral* - The **genitofemoral nerve** innervates the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora (genital branch) and the upper anterior thigh (femoral branch), thus a block would be insufficient for a **forceps delivery**. - This nerve's distribution does not cover the primary areas of pain and manipulation during an instrumented vaginal delivery. *Posterior femoral* - The **posterior femoral cutaneous nerve** primarily provides sensory innervation to the skin of the posterior thigh and part of the gluteal region. - Blocking this nerve would not provide the necessary anesthesia for the **perineum and vagina** required during a forceps delivery.

Question 1089: Which of the following actions should be avoided during the delivery of an Rh-negative mother?

A. Gently perform manual removal of placenta if necessary (Correct Answer)
B. Withhold ergometrine until after anterior shoulder delivery
C. Administer IV fluids
D. Apply fundal pressure during second stage of labor

Explanation: ***Gently perform manual removal of placenta if necessary*** - **Manual removal of the placenta** can significantly increase the risk of **fetomaternal hemorrhage**, which is particularly dangerous in an **Rh-negative mother**. Large amounts of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation can lead to significant alloimmunization, making subsequent pregnancies high-risk. - This procedure should be **avoided if possible** due to the heightened risk of sensitizing the mother to Rh antigens; if it is absolutely necessary, a **higher dose of Rh immunoglobulin** may be required. *Withhold ergometrine until after anterior shoulder delivery* - **Ergometrine** is a uterotonic agent used to prevent **postpartum hemorrhage**. Withholding it until after the birth of the anterior shoulder is a **standard practice** to prevent uterine tetany before the baby is fully delivered. - This action does not pose a specific risk to an **Rh-negative mother** related to Rh sensitization; it is a general obstetric safety measure to ensure safe delivery and should **not be avoided**. *Apply fundal pressure during second stage of labor* - **Fundal pressure** (applying pressure to the top of the uterus to expedite delivery) is a **controversial practice** that is generally discouraged due to potential maternal and fetal complications. - While it may theoretically carry a small risk of **fetomaternal hemorrhage**, it is not specifically contraindicated in Rh-negative mothers more than in others. The main concerns are **uterine rupture**, **maternal injury**, and **fetal trauma**. If appropriate precautions with **Rh immunoglobulin** are taken, Rh status alone is not a reason to avoid this practice (though it should generally be avoided for other safety reasons). *Administer IV fluids* - **Intravenous fluids** are commonly administered during labor and delivery to maintain **hydration**, support **blood pressure**, and provide a route for medications. This is a **routine and safe practice**. - Administering IV fluids has no direct impact on **Rh sensitization** and is not contraindicated in an **Rh-negative mother**.

Question 1090: Commonest variety of compound presentation is?

A. Head with hand (Correct Answer)
B. Head with both feet
C. Head, hand & feet
D. Head with feet

Explanation: ***Head with hand*** - This is the **most frequent type** of compound presentation, where a fetal extremity (typically a hand) prolapses alongside the fetal head into the maternal pelvis. - It occurs due to factors that prevent the fetal head from snugly filling the pelvis, such as **cephalopelvic disproportion** or a **high fetal station**. *Head with foot* - While possible, the presentation of the **head with a foot** is less common than with a hand. - A foot alongside the head often suggests a more complex presentation or potential issues with fetal lie or attitude. *Head with both foot* - The simultaneous presentation of the **head with both feet** is exceedingly rare. - This scenario would indicate a profound degree of space for fetal extremities to descend alongside the head, possibly in cases of extreme prematurity or pelvic relaxation. *Head, hand & foot* - The combined presentation of the **head, a hand, and a foot** is extremely uncommon. - Such a complex presentation would suggest significant fetal mobility in a large pelvic space, making it a very rare occurrence in clinical practice.

Practice by Chapter

Physiology of Labor

Practice Questions

Stages of Labor and Normal Progression

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Fetal Monitoring Techniques

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Pain Management in Labor

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Induction and Augmentation of Labor

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Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)

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Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques

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Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns

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Obstetric Emergencies

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Postpartum Hemorrhage Management

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