Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1041: Which of the following is NOT a component of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labor?

A. Control cord traction
B. Massage of uterus before control cord traction (Correct Answer)
C. Uterotonic agent within 1 minute of birth
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Massage of uterus before control cord traction*** - In **Active Management of the Third Stage of Labor (AMTSL)**, uterine massage is typically performed *after* the placenta has been delivered to promote uterine contraction and prevent **postpartum hemorrhage**. - Performing **uterine massage prior to controlled cord traction** is not part of the standard protocol for AMTSL and can be ineffective or even counterproductive if the placenta is not yet separated. *Control cord traction* - **Controlled cord traction** is a key step in AMTSL, performed by gently pulling the umbilical cord while simultaneously providing counter-traction above the pubic symphysis, once signs of placental separation appear. - This maneuver helps to **expel the placenta** more quickly and reduce the duration of the third stage of labor. *Uterotonic agent within 1 minute of birth* - Administering a **uterotonic agent**, such as **oxytocin**, within one minute of birth (or after the anterior shoulder is delivered) is a cornerstone of AMTSL. - **Oxytocin** helps the uterus to contract strongly and continuously, thereby preventing excessive bleeding by compressing blood vessels in the decidua. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because "Massage of uterus before control cord traction" is indeed **NOT** a component of routine AMTSL. - The other two options—**controlled cord traction** and **administration of a uterotonic agent**—are essential components of AMTSL.

Question 1042: Prevalence of breech presentation at full term is ?

A. 10%
B. 6-7%
C. 3-4% (Correct Answer)
D. 1-2%

Explanation: ***3-4%*** - The prevalence of **breech presentation** at full term (37 weeks or more) is approximately **3-4%** of all singleton pregnancies. - While breech presentation is more common in earlier gestation, most fetuses spontaneously turn to a cephalic presentation by term. *10%* - A prevalence of **10%** for breech presentation is typically observed around **32 weeks of gestation**, not at full term. - This percentage significantly decreases as pregnancy progresses towards term. *6-7%* - A prevalence of **6-7%** for breech presentation is still higher than what is observed at full term. - This range might be encountered in earlier stages of the **third trimester** but not typically at 37 weeks or beyond. *1-2%* - A prevalence of **1-2%** is slightly lower than the generally accepted range for full-term breech presentations. - While some studies might report figures at the lower end, **3-4%** is the more commonly cited and accurate range.

Question 1043: Engaging diameter in face presentation is?

A. Occipitofrontal
B. Suboccipitobregmatic
C. Submentobregmatic (Correct Answer)
D. Mentovertical

Explanation: ***Submentobregmatic*** - In a **face presentation**, the fetal head is completely extended, causing the chin (**mentum**) to present. The engaging diameter is from the **submentum** (below the chin) to the **bregma** (anterior fontanelle). - This diameter measures approximately **9.5 cm** and is the smallest available diameter for engagement in face presentations that are in a **mentum-anterior** position. *Suboccipitobregmatic* - This is the engaging diameter in an **occiput-anterior presentation**, where the head is well-flexed. - It extends from the **subocciput** to the **bregma**, measuring around **9.5 cm**. *Occipitofrontal* - This diameter is involved in a **deflexed head presentation**, such as a **brow presentation**. - It measures about **11.5 cm** and extends from the **occiput** to the **frontal eminences**. *Mentovertical* - This is the engaging diameter for a **brow presentation**, where the head is partially extended. - It is the largest presenting diameter, measuring approximately **13.5 cm**, and typically leads to obstructed labor.

Question 1044: Engagement of head in labour means?

A. Smallest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic outlet
B. Greatest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic outlet
C. Smallest diameter of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic brim
D. Largest diameter of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic brim (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Largest diameter of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic brim*** - **Engagement** is defined as the descent of the widest transverse diameter of the fetal presenting part (typically the **biparietal diameter** for a cephalic presentation) below the **pelvic inlet** or brim. - This signifies that the fetal head has successfully navigated the widest part of the maternal pelvis, indicating that the pelvis is generally adequate for vaginal delivery. *Smallest diameter of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic brim* - This statement is incorrect because engagement refers to the **widest** rather than the smallest diameter negotiating the pelvic inlet. - The smallest diameter crossing the brim would not be a definitive indicator of the head being truly engaged in the pelvis. *Smallest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic outlet* - This option refers to the **pelvic outlet**, which is a later stage in labor after engagement has already occurred. - Furthermore, referring to the "smallest horizontal plane" is not the standard anatomical description for assessing engagement. *Greatest horizontal plane of the presenting part has crossed the pelvic outlet* - Similar to the previous option, this describes passage through the **pelvic outlet**, not engagement at the pelvic brim. - While "greatest horizontal plane" is closer to the concept of the widest diameter, its location at the outlet makes this definition incorrect for engagement.

Question 1045: Which of the following is an absolute indication for caesarean section?

A. Central placenta previa (Correct Answer)
B. Breech presentation
C. Bad obstetric history
D. Previous caesarean delivery

Explanation: ***Central placenta previa*** - This condition involves the **placenta completely covering the internal cervical os**, blocking the birth canal. - A vaginal delivery would lead to severe, life-threatening **hemorrhage** for both the mother and the fetus, making a C-section mandatory. *Breech presentation* - While many breech presentations are delivered by C-section, it is not an absolute indication. - In certain situations, such as **frank breech** with adequate maternal pelvis and experienced obstetrician, a **vaginal delivery can be attempted** after careful evaluation. *Bad obstetric history* - This refers to a history of adverse pregnancy outcomes, but it is a **relative indication** and not an absolute one for C-section. - The decision for C-section would depend on the **specific nature of the previous adverse outcomes** and current pregnancy complications. *Previous caesarean delivery* - A prior C-section is a very common indication for repeat C-section, but it is **not an absolute indication** for all subsequent deliveries. - Many women with a previous C-section can safely undergo a **trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)**, especially if the prior incision was a low transverse uterine incision.

Question 1046: Mediolateral episiotomy is preferred because?

A. Reduces damage to anal sphincter and anal canal (Correct Answer)
B. Less blood loss
C. Easy to suture
D. Easy technique

Explanation: ***Reduces damage to anal sphincter and anal canal*** - The **mediolateral episiotomy** is cut at an angle away from the midline, significantly reducing the risk of extending into the **anal sphincter** and **rectum**. - This angulation helps to avoid severe perineal tears, protecting against **fecal incontinence** and other long-term complications. *Less blood loss* - **Mediolateral episiotomies** often result in more blood loss compared to midline episiotomies due to cutting across more muscle and blood vessels. - The angled incision involves a larger area of vascular tissue, increasing the potential for bleeding. *Easy to suture* - **Mediolateral episiotomies** are generally more complex and difficult to repair than midline episiotomies due to the irregular nature of the angled incision. - Achieving proper anatomical alignment and hemostasis can be challenging. *Easy technique* - While a commonplace procedure, the **mediolateral episiotomy** requires precise angulation and depth to ensure effective tissue release and avoid critical structures. - **Midline episiotomies** are technically simpler to perform due to their straightforward, sagittal incision, though they carry higher risks of severe tears.

Question 1047: Most common breech presentation in primigravida is?

A. Frank breech presentation (Correct Answer)
B. Footling breech presentation
C. Incomplete breech presentation
D. Complete breech presentation

Explanation: ***Frank breech presentation*** - This is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for **65-70% of all breech presentations**, especially in **primigravida**. - The baby's **hips are flexed and knees are extended**, with the feet near the head. - The extended legs splint the fetal body and contribute to a more stable position within the uterus. *Complete breech presentation* - In a **complete breech**, the baby's hips and knees are both flexed, with the buttocks presenting first and the feet near the buttocks. - Accounts for approximately **5-10% of breech presentations**. - While common, it is significantly less frequent than frank breech, particularly in primigravidas. *Footling breech presentation* - In a **footling breech**, one or both feet present first through the cervix. - Accounts for approximately **10-30% of breech presentations**. - Associated with higher risks including premature rupture of membranes, umbilical cord prolapse, and is less stable during delivery. *Incomplete breech presentation* - This is a general term that includes **footling and kneeling breech** presentations, where the presentation is neither frank nor complete. - It's an encompassing category rather than a specific single presentation type. - Less common than frank breech as the most frequent single type in primigravidas.

Question 1048: Persistent OP position is most common in which pelvis?

A. Android pelvis
B. Gynaecoid pelvis
C. Anthropoid pelvis (Correct Answer)
D. Mixed pelvis

Explanation: ***Anthropoid pelvis*** - The **anthropoid pelvis** has an **oval-shaped inlet** with a **long anteroposterior diameter** and **narrow transverse diameter**. - This pelvic configuration is most commonly associated with **persistent occiput posterior (OP) position** because the narrow transverse diameter limits rotation, while the long AP diameter accommodates the fetal head in the OP or direct OA position. - The fetal head tends to engage and remain in the **direct OP or direct OA position** rather than rotating to the transverse position. - This is the **classic pelvic type associated with persistent OP delivery**. *Android pelvis* - The **android pelvis** has a heart-shaped or triangular inlet, narrow subpubic arch, and prominent ischial spines. - This pelvic type is associated with **difficult labor**, **transverse arrest**, and **deep transverse arrest** of the fetal head. - While it can cause malposition, it is more characteristically associated with **arrest disorders** rather than persistent OP position. *Gynaecoid pelvis* - The **gynaecoid pelvis** is the ideal and most common female pelvic type, with a rounded inlet, wide subpubic arch, and adequate dimensions. - This pelvic shape allows for **optimal fetal head rotation** from OP to OA position during labor. - Persistent OP position is **uncommon** with this pelvic type. *Mixed pelvis* - A **mixed pelvis** exhibits characteristics of more than one fundamental pelvic type. - The likelihood of persistent OP depends on which features predominate, but it is not a specific classic association.

Question 1049: Which of the following is not a part of basic essential obstetric care?

A. Blood transfusion (Correct Answer)
B. Administration of parenteral antibiotics
C. Administration of parenteral sedatives for eclampsia
D. Administration of parenteral oxytocic drugs

Explanation: ***Blood transfusion*** - While important in many obstetric emergencies, **blood transfusion** is considered part of **Comprehensive Essential Obstetric Care (CEmOC)**, not basic care. - **Basic Essential Obstetric Care (BEmOC)** focuses on the capability to perform key life-saving interventions but generally lacks the capacity for blood storage or transfusion. *Administration of parenteral antibiotics* - This is a crucial component of **Basic Essential Obstetric Care (BEmOC)**, used to manage infections such as **puerperal sepsis**. - It addresses one of the major causes of maternal mortality. *Administration of parenteral sedatives for eclampsia* - The management of **eclampsia** with parenteral anticonvulsants (e.g., magnesium sulfate) is a fundamental aspect of **Basic Essential Obstetric Care (BEmOC)**. - This intervention prevents and controls seizures, a severe complication of pre-eclampsia. - Note: While the question refers to "sedatives," the correct medical classification is **anticonvulsants**. *Administration of parenteral oxytocic drugs* - The use of **parenteral oxytocic drugs** (e.g., oxytocin) to prevent and treat **postpartum hemorrhage** is a core function of **Basic Essential Obstetric Care (BEmOC)**. - Postpartum hemorrhage is a leading cause of maternal death, and timely oxytocin administration is critical.

Question 1050: Transverse lie is caused by all except which of the following?

A. Prematurity
B. Placenta previa
C. Maternal diabetes (Correct Answer)
D. Multiparity

Explanation: ***Maternal diabetes*** - **Maternal diabetes** is primarily associated with **macrosomia** (larger-than-average fetus) and increased risk of shoulder dystocia, not typically transverse lie. - While it can complicate labor, it does not directly predispose to the fetus lying sideways in the uterus. *Multiparity* - **Multiparity** (multiple prior pregnancies) can lead to **lax abdominal and uterine musculature**, which reduces the integrity of the uterus to maintain fetal orientation. - This laxity allows the fetus more room to move and settle into an abnormal lie, including transverse. *Prematurity* - In **premature deliveries**, the fetus is often smaller and has more space to move within the uterus, increasing the likelihood of an **unstable lie**. - The relative proportions of fetal size to uterine cavity are less constrained in premature infants, facilitating non-longitudinal positions. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** (placenta covering or near the cervix) can physically obstruct the descent of the fetal head into the pelvis, preventing it from engaging in a longitudinal lie. - The placenta's position forces the fetus to lie in a **transverse or oblique orientation** because the lower uterine segment is occupied, preventing proper fetal alignment.

Practice by Chapter

Physiology of Labor

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Stages of Labor and Normal Progression

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Fetal Monitoring Techniques

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Pain Management in Labor

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Induction and Augmentation of Labor

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Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)

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Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques

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Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns

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Obstetric Emergencies

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Postpartum Hemorrhage Management

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