Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 991: Vacuum extraction is CONTRAINDICATED in:

A. Heart disease
B. Microcephaly
C. Premature babies (Correct Answer)
D. Polyhydramnios

Explanation: ***Premature babies*** - The **skull bones of premature babies are very soft and poorly calcified**, making them highly susceptible to **cephalhematoma** and **intracranial hemorrhage** if vacuum extraction is attempted. - The risk of **neonatal injury** with vacuum extraction is significantly increased in preterm infants due to their fragility. *Heart disease* - While certain **maternal heart conditions** might influence the choice of delivery mode to minimize maternal exertion, vacuum extraction itself is not an absolute contraindication if the mother can tolerate some pushing. - The primary concern is **maternal hemodynamic stability**, not the fetal head integrity, which vacuum extraction primarily impacts. *Microcephaly* - **Microcephaly** indicates a small head size, which would not typically hinder a vaginal delivery and might even make it easier. - The fetal head size (even if small) doesn't inherently contraindicate vacuum extraction, as the problem in vacuum extraction usually relates to large or improperly positioned heads, or the fragility of the skull itself. *Polyhydramnios* - **Polyhydramnios** refers to an excess of amniotic fluid and is a condition related to the uterine environment, often associated with fetal anomalies or maternal diabetes. - While it can complicate pregnancy and labor, it does not directly contraindicate the use of **vacuum extraction** during the second stage of labor.

Question 992: Childbirth trauma leading to urine incontinence is seen least in females with:

A. Platypelloid pelvis
B. Gynecoid pelvis (Correct Answer)
C. Anthropoid pelvis
D. Android pelvis

Explanation: ***Gynecoid pelvis*** - The **gynecoid pelvis** is considered the **ideal female pelvis** for childbirth, with a **round inlet** and well-proportioned dimensions. - It facilitates the **easiest vaginal delivery** with optimal pelvic capacity and favorable diameters. - Due to the smooth and uncomplicated labor process, it is associated with the **least childbirth trauma** and consequently the **lowest risk of urinary incontinence** from pelvic floor damage. *Android pelvis* - The **android pelvis** has a **heart-shaped inlet** and generally **narrower pelvic cavity**, characteristic of the male pelvis. - This shape leads to **difficult and prolonged labor** with higher rates of operative delivery. - Associated with the **highest incidence of birth trauma** and subsequent complications like **stress urinary incontinence** from pelvic floor injury. *Anthropoid pelvis* - The **anthropoid pelvis** has an **oval inlet** with a long anterior-posterior diameter and relatively short transverse diameter. - While generally favorable for delivery, it may be associated with **occiput posterior positions** and potentially longer labors. - Moderate risk of birth trauma, more than gynecoid but less than android pelvis. *Platypelloid pelvis* - The **platypelloid pelvis** has a **flat, oval inlet** with wide transverse diameter but very short anterior-posterior diameter. - This shape causes **difficulty with engagement and descent** of the fetal head. - Associated with higher risk of operative delivery and birth trauma compared to gynecoid pelvis.

Question 993: Absolute indication for LSCS is:

A. Previous LSCS
B. Breech presentation
C. Complete placenta previa (Correct Answer)
D. Mento-anterior face presentation

Explanation: ***Complete placenta previa*** - With **complete placenta previa**, the cervix is completely covered by the placenta, making a vaginal delivery impossible and leading to potentially life-threatening hemorrhage for both mother and fetus if attempted. - This condition presents an **absolute contraindication** to vaginal delivery, necessitating a **cesarean section** to deliver the fetus safely. *Previous LSCS* - A **previous lower segment cesarean section (LSCS)** is a common indication for a repeat LSCS, but it is not absolute; many women with a history of one prior LSCS can successfully undergo a **trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)**. - The decision depends on factors like the type of uterine incision, the reason for the prior cesarean, and the absence of other contraindications for vaginal birth. *Breech presentation* - While many **breech presentations** are delivered via LSCS, particularly for nulliparous women or with certain breech types (e.g., footling), it is not an absolute indication. - In selected cases, a **vaginal breech delivery** can be safely attempted under strict protocols and experienced supervision. *Mento-anterior face presentation* - A **mento-anterior face presentation** typically allows for a vaginal delivery as the neck is fully extended, and the smallest diameter of the head (the submentobregmatic) presents. - The mentum (chin) points anteriorly, allowing the head to flex at the pelvic outlet and deliver.

Question 994: ARM is contraindicated in:

A. Accidental Hemorrhage
B. Twins
C. Hydramnios
D. Placenta previa (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Placenta previa*** - **Placenta previa** is an **absolute contraindication** to ARM because the placenta covers the cervical os. - Rupturing membranes in placenta previa would directly **lacerate the placenta**, leading to **catastrophic hemorrhage** that is life-threatening to both mother and fetus. - ARM should **never be performed** in cases of placenta previa; cesarean section is the mode of delivery. *Hydramnios* - **Hydramnios** (polyhydramnios) is a **relative contraindication** requiring caution, not an absolute contraindication. - ARM can be performed with proper precautions: **controlled rupture** with fingers at the cervix to regulate fluid flow, ensuring the presenting part is well-applied to prevent **cord prolapse**. - The risk is manageable with careful technique, making it a cautionary situation rather than an absolute contraindication. *Accidental Hemorrhage* - **Accidental hemorrhage** (placental abruption) is not a contraindication to ARM. - In fact, ARM may be indicated to accelerate labor and reduce intrauterine pressure if the fetus is viable, which can help manage the abruption. *Twins* - **Twin pregnancies** do not contraindicate ARM. - ARM may be used for the first twin to induce labor or for the second twin after delivery of the first, depending on clinical circumstances.

Question 995: As compared to mediolateral episiotomy, median episiotomy has complications because of:

A. Cosmetic problem
B. Extension to rectum (Correct Answer)
C. More blood loss
D. Poor repair

Explanation: ***Extension to rectum*** - Median episiotomy involves a straight incision towards the anus, which places it at a higher risk of extending directly into the **rectum** or **anal sphincter**, leading to third- or fourth-degree lacerations. - This proximity to the anal canal significantly increases the potential for **fecal incontinence** and other severe complications. *Cosmetic problem* - While scar formation can occur with any incision, median episiotomies are generally considered to have a **better cosmetic outcome** compared to mediolateral episiotomies due to a more anatomical scar formation. - Therefore, cosmetic problems are not the primary reason for considering median episiotomies more complicated. *More blood loss* - Mediolateral episiotomies typically involve cutting across muscle fibers and several blood vessels, often leading to **more blood loss** than median episiotomies. - Median episiotomies generally involve less vascular tissue, resulting in **less intraoperative bleeding**. *Poor repair* - Median episiotomies are generally **easier to repair** than mediolateral episiotomies due to their straight, anatomically aligned incision. - The layers are typically well-defined, facilitating a more straightforward and often less painful repair.

Question 996: All the following are indications of caesarean section EXCEPT:

A. Abruptio placenta (Correct Answer)
B. Type IV placenta previa
C. Active herpes genitalis
D. Untreated carcinoma cervix stage IB

Explanation: ***Abruptio placenta*** - While severe **abruptio placenta** with fetal distress often necessitates an expedited delivery via C-section, a **mild abruption** with a stable mother and fetus may be managed conservatively with vaginal delivery. The question asks for an exception, and not all abruptions automatically indicate C-section. - The decision depends on the **severity of the abruption**, maternal and fetal stability, and gestational age. *Type IV placenta previa* - **Type IV placenta previa**, also known as complete or central placenta previa, means the placenta completely covers the internal cervical os. - This condition is an **absolute indication for C-section** to prevent catastrophic hemorrhage for both mother and fetus during attempted vaginal delivery. *Active herpes genitalis* - **Active herpes genitalis** (visible lesions or prodromal symptoms) in labor is an indication for C-section to prevent vertical transmission of the **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** to the neonate. - Neonatal herpes can cause severe morbidity and mortality due to encephalitis and disseminated disease. *Untreated carcinoma cervix stage IB* - An **untreated carcinoma cervix stage IB** is an indication for C-section because vaginal delivery would likely cause significant hemorrhage and potential dissemination of cancer cells. - This also protects the mother from further trauma and allows for subsequent appropriate oncologic management.

Question 997: Uterine rupture is most common in -

A. Posterior lower segment
B. Upper uterine segment
C. Lateral uterine wall
D. Anterior lower segment (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Anterior lower segment*** - The **anterior lower segment** is the most common site for **uterine rupture** due to prior **cesarean sections** or other uterine surgeries which are often performed anteriorly. - This area is thinner and more prone to stretching and tearing during labor, especially in cases of repeated surgical scars. *Posterior lower segment* - While rupture can occur in the **posterior lower segment**, it is less common than the anterior location. - This area is usually less stressed by previous surgical incisions compared to the anterior wall. *Upper uterine segment* - Rupture in the **upper uterine segment** typically involves an **unscarred uterus** and is a rare event, often associated with a **grand multiparous patient** or **oxytocin hyperstimulation**. - This type of rupture is usually spontaneous and more catastrophic due to the rich vascularity of the upper segment. *Lateral uterine wall* - Rupture of the **lateral uterine wall** is uncommon and usually associated with **trauma** or **manual extraction of the placenta**, rather than prior surgical scars. - It is not the most frequent site for spontaneous or scar-related uterine rupture.

Question 998: Converting frank breech presentation into footling breech presentation within the upper birth canal is called

A. Displacement
B. Relaxation
C. Decomposition (Correct Answer)
D. Conversion

Explanation: ***Decomposition*** - **Decomposition** is the correct obstetric term for the maneuver of converting a frank breech presentation into a footling breech presentation. - This involves bringing down one or both feet from the extended position, making them accessible for **assisted breech delivery**. - The term specifically refers to "breaking down" or altering the configuration of the breech presentation within the birth canal. - This maneuver is part of **breech extraction techniques** and may be performed during vaginal breech delivery. *Displacement* - **Displacement** in obstetrics typically refers to pushing the presenting part upward or to the side. - Commonly used in cases of **cord prolapse** where the presenting part is displaced to relieve cord compression. - It does not describe the conversion between different types of breech presentation. *Relaxation* - **Relaxation** is a general term referring to the absence of uterine contractions or muscular tension. - It does not describe any specific obstetric maneuver or presentation change. *Conversion* - **Conversion** is a broader term that can refer to changing one presentation to another (e.g., **external cephalic version** to convert breech to cephalic). - However, the specific technical term for converting frank breech to footling breech is **decomposition**, not conversion.

Question 999: Outlet forceps means:

A. Fetal head at or on the perineum (station +2 or more) (Correct Answer)
B. Rupture of membranes
C. Rotation > 45°
D. Full cervical dilatation

Explanation: ***Fetal head at or on the perineum (station +2 or more)*** - **Outlet forceps** is defined by the fetal head being at or on the **perineum** (station **+2 or +3**), meaning the scalp is visible at the introitus without separating the labia. - This represents the **lowest station** and is the **primary defining characteristic** that distinguishes outlet forceps from low or mid-forceps deliveries. - The fetal skull has reached the **pelvic floor**, and delivery is imminent with minimal traction required. *Full cervical dilatation* - While **full cervical dilatation** (10 cm) is indeed a **prerequisite** for any forceps application (outlet, low, or mid-forceps), it is **not the defining feature** of outlet forceps specifically. - This is a **basic requirement** for all operative vaginal deliveries to prevent cervical lacerations and ensure safe passage. *Rupture of membranes* - **Rupture of membranes** commonly occurs before forceps application but is **not a defining criterion** for outlet forceps. - Membranes are usually ruptured by this stage of labor, but this is not specific to outlet versus other types of forceps delivery. *Rotation > 45°* - Outlet forceps requires **rotation ≤ 45°**, meaning the fetal head should be in an **occiput anterior** or nearly anterior position (OA, ROA, LOA). - Rotation **> 45°** would classify the delivery as **low-forceps** or **mid-forceps**, not outlet forceps. - Minimal rotation is a characteristic of outlet forceps, making this option incorrect.

Question 1000: Maternal supine hypotension syndrome can be minimized by

A. General anaesthesia
B. Regional anaesthesia
C. Left-Hip elevation (Correct Answer)
D. Left-Uterine displacement

Explanation: ***Left-Hip elevation*** - **Left-hip elevation** (left lateral tilt) is the **standard clinical method** to prevent and minimize supine hypotension syndrome in pregnant patients. - Placing a wedge or pillow under the patient's **left hip** to create a 15-degree tilt displaces the gravid uterus off the **inferior vena cava** and **aorta**, preventing aortocaval compression. - This simple positioning maneuver improves **venous return**, maintains **cardiac output**, and prevents the hypotension that occurs when the pregnant uterus compresses the great vessels in the supine position. - This is the **recommended practice** in labor, delivery, and during surgical procedures in pregnant patients. *Left-Uterine displacement* - While left uterine displacement is the **physiological mechanism** that relieves aortocaval compression, it describes the *outcome* rather than the practical intervention. - In clinical practice, uterine displacement is achieved through positioning techniques like **left-hip elevation** or **left lateral tilt**, or by manual displacement during procedures. - This option describes what happens anatomically rather than the specific clinical action taken. *General anaesthesia* - **General anesthesia** does not prevent supine hypotension syndrome; in fact, anesthetic agents can cause **vasodilation** and exacerbate hypotension. - Patient positioning (such as left-hip elevation) is still required during general anesthesia to prevent aortocaval compression. *Regional anaesthesia* - **Regional anesthesia** (epidural or spinal) causes **sympathetic blockade** leading to vasodilation, which can worsen hypotension rather than prevent it. - Patients receiving regional anesthesia still require proper positioning with left-hip elevation to prevent supine hypotension syndrome.

Practice by Chapter

Physiology of Labor

Practice Questions

Stages of Labor and Normal Progression

Practice Questions

Fetal Monitoring Techniques

Practice Questions

Pain Management in Labor

Practice Questions

Induction and Augmentation of Labor

Practice Questions

Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)

Practice Questions

Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques

Practice Questions

Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns

Practice Questions

Obstetric Emergencies

Practice Questions

Postpartum Hemorrhage Management

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free