Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

A young sexually active female patient presented to the outpatient department with complaints of lower abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. On examination, the body temperature is 103 degrees Fahrenheit, pulse rate is 109 per minute and there is abdominal tenderness. Cervical motion tenderness is present on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Gynecological Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 881: Powder-burr appearance on laparoscopy is characteristic of:

A. Endometriosis (Correct Answer)
B. Endometrioid tumour
C. Epithelial ovarian tumour
D. Endometrial cancer

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Endometriosis** is defined as the presence of functional endometrial tissue (stroma and glands) outside the uterine cavity. Laparoscopy is the **gold standard** for diagnosis, allowing direct visualization of lesions. The "Powder-burn" or "Gunshot" appearance (also called **Powder-puff** or **Burr** lesions) refers to classic, pigmented lesions. These are typically black, dark brown, or bluish-grey nodules. The color is due to the accumulation of old blood (hemosiderin deposits) trapped within the ectopic endometrial tissue during cyclical bleeding. These lesions are often associated with scarring and puckering of the surrounding peritoneum. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Endometrioid tumor:** While related to endometriosis, these are solid-cystic malignant masses, usually presenting as large ovarian tumors rather than small peritoneal "powder-burn" spots. * **Epithelial ovarian tumor:** These typically present as complex cystic masses with papillary excrescences or solid components on imaging and laparoscopy, not as small surface burns. * **Endometrial cancer:** This is a malignancy of the inner lining of the uterus. Diagnosis is made via endometrial biopsy or D&C, not by identifying peritoneal surface lesions on laparoscopy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Laparoscopy** is the Gold Standard for diagnosis. * **Red lesions:** Early, active, highly vascular lesions (Flame-shaped). * **Black/Brown lesions:** Classic, older lesions (Powder-burn). * **White lesions:** Late, inactive, scarred/fibrotic lesions. * **Chocolate Cyst:** Endometrioma of the ovary (filled with thick, old blood). * **SAMPSON’S Theory:** Most common theory for pathogenesis (Retrograde menstruation).

Question 882: What is the protective bacterium found in the normal vaginal flora?

A. Peptostreptococcus
B. Lactobacillus (Correct Answer)
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. E. coli

Explanation: **Explanation:** The normal vaginal ecosystem in a reproductive-age woman is dominated by **Lactobacillus species** (primarily *L. crispatus* and *L. jensenii*), also known as **Döderlein’s bacilli**. These Gram-positive rods play a crucial protective role by fermenting glycogen (released from vaginal epithelial cells under the influence of estrogen) into **lactic acid**. This process maintains an acidic vaginal pH (3.8–4.5), which inhibits the overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria. Additionally, Lactobacilli produce hydrogen peroxide ($H_2O_2$) and bacteriocins, further protecting the vaginal environment. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Peptostreptococcus:** This is an anaerobic Gram-positive coccus. While it can be a part of the normal flora in small quantities, its overgrowth is associated with Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) and pelvic inflammatory disease. * **C. Gardnerella vaginalis:** This is a facultative anaerobic bacterium. While present in low levels in some healthy women, it is the hallmark organism of **Bacterial Vaginosis**, where it replaces Lactobacilli and leads to a rise in vaginal pH (>4.5). * **D. E. coli:** This is a coliform bacterium from the enteric flora. Its presence in the vagina is considered colonization or infection (often leading to UTIs) rather than a protective component of the normal flora. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Vaginal pH:** Normal is 3.8–4.5. If pH >4.5, suspect Bacterial Vaginosis or Trichomoniasis. * **Estrogen Influence:** Lactobacilli are absent in pre-pubertal and post-menopausal women due to low estrogen and low glycogen levels, making the pH more alkaline. * **Amsel’s Criteria:** Used for diagnosing BV; one criterion is the replacement of Lactobacilli by Gardnerella and anaerobes (Clue cells).

Question 883: Identify the gynecological instrument shown in the image below:

A. Graves vaginal speculum
B. Auvard speculum
C. Sims speculum
D. Cusco vaginal speculum (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cusco vaginal speculum*** - In the given image, the instrument shows the characteristic **bivalve design** with two curved blades that can be opened and closed using a **screw mechanism** visible at the handle, which is the defining feature of a Cusco speculum. - The **self-retaining mechanism** and **smooth, curved blades** designed for routine gynecological examinations like **Pap smears** are clearly visible, distinguishing it from other speculums. *Graves vaginal speculum* - The Graves speculum has **wider, more angled blades** that contour to the vaginal fornices, which is not seen in the image. - It typically has a **different handle configuration** and blade curvature compared to what's shown in the instrument. *Auvard speculum* - This is a **weighted speculum** with a distinctly different design featuring a **heavy posterior blade** for retraction during procedures like **D&C**. - The instrument in the image lacks the characteristic **weighted design** and **single posterior blade** typical of an Auvard speculum. *Sims speculum* - The Sims speculum is **non-self-retaining** and has a **double-ended, curved design** that requires manual holding or assistance. - Unlike the instrument shown, it lacks a **screw mechanism** and has a completely different **curved, hook-like shape**.

Question 884: A 36-year-old P2L2 patient diagnosed with severe endometriosis shows pelvic adhesions on laparoscopy. She has undergone tubal ligation and adhesiolysis previously. What is the most appropriate management during laparoscopy?

A. Observation only, no intervention
B. Total laparoscopic hysterectomy
C. Oophorectomy
D. Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy***- This is the **definitive surgical treatment** for symptomatic **severe endometriosis** (Grade IV) in patients who have completed childbearing, offering the highest chance of cure and symptom relief.- Removing both the uterus and the ovaries eliminates the sources of **menstruation** and **estrogen**, which fuel the remaining endometriotic lesions, thereby minimizing the risk of recurrence.*Observation only, no intervention*- This approach is inappropriate for **severe, symptomatic endometriosis**, especially given the history of failed prior intervention (adhesiolysis) and chronic symptoms.- Failing to intervene surgically can lead to persistent **chronic pelvic pain** and potential organ dysfunction due to extensive adhesions and deep infiltrating endometriosis.*Total laparoscopic hysterectomy*- While removing the uterus addresses pain related to menses and potential adenomyosis, leaving the ovaries intact ensures continued **estrogen production**.- Continued estrogen stimulation significantly increases the risk of endometriosis recurrence (up to 50%) from any residual deposits, contraindicating ovarian preservation in this severe case.*Oophorectomy*- Simple oophorectomy (unilateral or bilateral) without concomitant **hysterectomy** is generally inadequate for severe endometriosis.- If the uterus is left behind, the patient may still experience cyclical bleeding and pain related to **adenomyosis** or pain fibers, and surgical staging remains incomplete for definitive care.

Question 885: What is the best diagnostic test for evaluating endometrial pathology?

A. Transvaginal sonography
B. Pipelle endometrial biopsy
C. Dilatation and curettage (D&C)
D. Hysteroscopy-guided endometrial biopsy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hysteroscopy-guided endometrial biopsy*** - This is considered the **gold standard** for evaluation as it allows for **direct visualization** of the endometrial cavity, facilitating the targeted biopsy of focal lesions such as polyps or localized carcinoma. - Targeting specific areas significantly improves **diagnostic yield** and accuracy, minimizing the risk of missing pathology compared to blind procedures. *Pipelle endometrial biopsy* - This is an effective, **office-based suction procedure** often used for initial screening of diffuse pathology (e.g., endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma) due to its ease and tolerability. - It is a **blind procedure** and may fail to adequately sample or completely miss **focal lesions** like small polyps or carcinoma situated in the cornua. *Dilatation and curettage (D&C)* - D&C is also a **blind scraping procedure** that often yields incomplete tissue sampling, particularly of the **uterine cornua**, leading to potential false negatives. - While useful therapeutically (e.g., managing abortions), it is less accurate for **diagnostic evaluation** than hysteroscopy. *Transvaginal sonography* - TVS is an **initial screening test** used to measure **endometrial thickness** (ET), which can indicate the *need* for, but cannot replace, histological diagnosis. - It provides **structural information** (e.g., presence of fluid, fibroids) but cannot definitively diagnose the nature of the cellular pathology, requiring subsequent biopsy for **histological confirmation**.

Question 886: A 25-year-old female presents with complaints of a yellowish-green, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. She reports painful urination and pain during intercourse & no itching. On speculum examination, her vulva and vaginal walls appear inflamed. What is the causative agent?

A. Candida albicans
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Trichomonas vaginalis***- The classic clinical presentation of **trichomoniasis** includes a copious, frothy (though not always), **yellowish-green**, and distinctly **foul-smelling** vaginal discharge.- The organism causes inflammation and tissue damage (vaginitis/vulvitis), leading to common symptoms like **dysuria** and **dyspareunia**, often without significant pruritus (itching). *Candida albicans*- This fungal infection typically causes a thick, **white, 'cottage cheese-like'** vaginal discharge.- The hallmark symptom is intense **vulvovaginal pruritus** (itching), which is explicitly reported as absent in this patient. *Gardnerella vaginalis*- This bacterium is the most common cause of **Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)**, which produces a thin, **grayish-white** discharge with a characteristic **fishy odor**.- BV often causes minimal inflammation (no significant vulvitis) and typically does not present with the bright yellowish-green discharge described. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*- While *N. gonorrhoeae* can cause **cervicitis** and **urethritis** (leading to dysuria), the discharge is usually described as **mucopurulent** rather than copious, foul-smelling, and yellowish-green.- The overall clinical picture (discharge color, odor, and inflammation) points more specifically toward a **prototozoal vaginitis**.

Question 887: A 38 year old woman presents with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic discomfort, and frequent urination. On physical examination, her uterus is found to be irregularly enlarged. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Leiomyoma (Correct Answer)
B. Ovarian cyst
C. Endometriosis
D. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

Explanation: ***Leiomyoma***- The constellation of **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)**, pelvic pressure symptoms (like frequent urination), and an **irregularly enlarged uterus** is the classic clinical presentation for **uterine leiomyomas (fibroids)**.- These benign tumors of the myometrium cause menorrhagia if they are submucosal, and pressure symptoms if they grow large and compress the surrounding bladder or bowel.*Endometriosis*- This condition is characterized by endometrial tissue outside the uterus, leading primarily to severe **dysmenorrhea**, **dyspareunia**, and chronic pelvic pain due to adhesions.- While it can cause pelvic symptoms, it does not typically result in an **irregularly enlarged uterus**; that finding strongly points to fibroids or adenomyosis.*Ovarian cyst*- A mass due to an ovarian cyst is an **adnexal** finding, meaning it arises from the ovary and is distinct from the uterine corpus.- Although very large cysts can cause pressure on the bladder, the uterus itself would not be described as **irregularly enlarged** in this diagnosis.*Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)*- PCOS is defined by chronic anovulation and hyperandrogenism, typically leading to **oligomenorrhea** (infrequent periods) or **amenorrhea**.- This diagnosis does not cause structural changes to the uterus (like enlargement) or primary symptoms of **menorrhagia**.

Question 888: A postmenopausal woman presents with irregular bleeding, endometrium biopsy shows endometrial hyperplasia without atypia. What is the likely management?

A. Estradiol
B. OCP
C. Danazol
D. LNG-IUS (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***LNG-IUS*** - The **Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)** is a first-line treatment for endometrial hyperplasia without atypia as it delivers a high concentration of **progestin** directly to the endometrium. - This local therapy effectively reverses hyperplasia by causing endometrial atrophy with minimal systemic side effects, making it an excellent choice for postmenopausal women. *OCP* - **Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** contain both estrogen and progestin. Administering estrogen is contraindicated as endometrial hyperplasia is caused by unopposed estrogen stimulation. - OCPs are generally indicated for **premenopausal** women for contraception or cycle regulation, not for treating hyperplasia in the postmenopausal population. *Estradiol* - **Estradiol** is a form of estrogen. The pathophysiology of endometrial hyperplasia involves excessive endometrial proliferation due to unopposed estrogen. - Giving estradiol would worsen the condition and increase the risk of progression to **atypical hyperplasia** and endometrial carcinoma. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is a synthetic steroid with anti-estrogenic and weak androgenic properties that can induce endometrial atrophy, but it is not a first-line treatment. - Its use is limited by significant **androgenic side effects**, such as hirsutism, acne, and weight gain, making progestins the preferred therapeutic choice.

Question 889: A 30-year-old female presents with a painful red granular lesion on the vulva accompanied by bilateral lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Infection
B. Lymphogranuloma Venereum
C. Granuloma Inguinale
D. Chancroid (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Chancroid***- Caused by ***Haemophilus ducreyi***, it presents classically as a **painful, ragged, deep vulvar ulcer** (soft chancre) often described as having an erythematous or granular base.- The condition is characteristically associated with large, sometimes suppurative, **painful unilateral or bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy** (**buboes**), which fits the combined clinical presentation of pain and lymphadenopathy.*Neisseria Gonorrhoeae Infection*- This infection primarily causes **mucopurulent urethritis** or **cervicitis** and is not typically associated with primary, ulcerative, or granular vulval lesions.- While regional lymphadenopathy may occur, it is usually not a prominent, painful finding defining the clinical presentation.*Granuloma Inguinale*- The characteristic lesion is a **painless, highly vascular, 'beefy red' ulcer** which bleeds easily, consistent with the term "granular" but contradicting the crucial feature of being **painful**.- True regional lymphadenopathy is rare; instead, subcutaneous granulomas may mimic lymph nodes (**pseudo-buboes**).*Lymphogranuloma Venereum*- The primary genital lesion is typically a small, **painless, transient papule** or vesicle that is often overlooked.- While it causes severe, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, the initial vulval lesion is usually not a prominent, painful, granular ulcer as described.

Question 890: A young sexually active female patient presented to the outpatient department with complaints of lower abdominal pain, fever, vomiting, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. On examination, the body temperature is 103 degrees Fahrenheit, pulse rate is 109 per minute and there is abdominal tenderness. Cervical motion tenderness is present on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (Correct Answer)
B. Adenomyosis
C. Endometriosis
D. Appendicitis

Explanation: ***Pelvic inflammatory disease*** - The presentation —lower abdominal pain, high **fever**, **foul-smelling vaginal discharge**, and severe **cervical motion tenderness (CMT)** in a sexually active woman —is the classic clinical triad for **acute Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**. - CMT, often called the **"Chandelier sign"**, is highly characteristic of PID, indicating inflammation of the fallopian tubes and surrounding structures (*salpingitis*). *Endometriosis* - This condition is characterized by chronic, cyclical pelvic pain, **dysmenorrhea**, and **dyspareunia**, and generally lacks acute signs of infection like high fever and leukorrhea. - It results from the presence of **endometrial tissue** outside the uterus and does not cause purulent vaginal discharge or acute CMT characteristic of infectious PID. *Adenomyosis* - Typically presents with **menorrhagia** (heavy bleeding) and worsening **dysmenorrhea** in older, often multiparous women, without acute febrile illness or infectious discharge. - It involves the invasion of **endometrial tissue** into the myometrium (uterine muscle wall), leading to a diffusely enlarged, globular uterus. *Appendicitis* - While it causes acute lower abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting, **appendicitis** typically presents with pain localized to the **right lower quadrant (RLQ)** and lacks the prominent **vaginal discharge** and specific **cervical motion tenderness** seen in PID. - The primary pathology involves inflammation of the appendix, not the female genital tract, thus the absence of associated **foul-smelling vaginal discharge**.

Practice by Chapter

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding

Practice Questions

Endometriosis

Practice Questions

Adenomyosis

Practice Questions

Uterine Fibroids

Practice Questions

Ovarian Cysts

Practice Questions

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Practice Questions

Vulvovaginitis

Practice Questions

Pelvic Organ Prolapse

Practice Questions

Vulvar Disorders

Practice Questions

Benign Breast Diseases

Practice Questions

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