Gynecological Disorders — MCQs
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What is the most common symptom of endometriosis?
What is the surgery of choice for diffuse endometriosis interna?
A 34-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for 3 years. On pelvic examination, there is a nodular, tender uterosacral ligament, a retroverted but normal-sized uterus, and a right adnexal mass. A recent pelvic ultrasound reveals a 6-cm right complex ovarian mass. Her CA-125 is elevated. What is the initial next step in management?
What is the most common form of vaginitis?
Ampullary pregnancy ruptures generally at how many weeks?
Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis by microscopy of vaginal discharge is supported by all of the following, EXCEPT:
In cases of recurrent abortions, what is the most common uterine malformation seen?
Multiple small mucinous cysts of the endocervix that result from blockage of endocervical glands by overlying squamous metaplastic epithelium are called what?
A woman presents with a fluctuant non-tender swelling at the introitus. What is the best treatment?
Vaginal atresia is associated with all except:
Gynecological Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is the most common symptom of endometriosis?
- A. Dysmenorrhea (Correct Answer)
- B. Dyspareunia
- C. Infertility
- D. Abdominal pain
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Endometriosis** is defined as the presence of functioning endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterine cavity. It is a chronic, estrogen-dependent inflammatory condition. **Why Dysmenorrhea is the correct answer:** **Dysmenorrhea** (specifically secondary, progressive congestive dysmenorrhea) is the **most common clinical symptom**, reported by approximately 70–90% of symptomatic patients. The pain typically begins a few days before menstruation, peaks during flow, and is caused by the cyclical bleeding of ectopic endometrial tissue. This leads to the release of inflammatory mediators (prostaglandins) and increased pressure within the lesions. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Dyspareunia:** This is a common symptom (deep dyspareunia), especially when the pouch of Douglas or uterosacral ligaments are involved, but it occurs less frequently than dysmenorrhea. * **C. Infertility:** While 30–50% of women with endometriosis face subfertility, it is often a *consequence* or a reason for seeking consultation rather than the most prevalent presenting symptom. * **D. Abdominal pain:** Chronic pelvic pain is a hallmark of the disease, but "dysmenorrhea" is the more specific and most frequently reported manifestation of this pain. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Laparoscopy (Visual inspection with biopsy). * **Classic Triad:** Dysmenorrhea, Dyspareunia, and Infertility. * **Most Common Site:** Ovary (often presenting as a "Chocolate Cyst" or Endometrioma). * **Powder-burn/Gunshot lesions:** Pathognomonic laparoscopic appearance. * **CA-125:** May be elevated but is non-specific; used primarily for monitoring recurrence.
Question 792: What is the surgery of choice for diffuse endometriosis interna?
- A. Total hysterectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Localised excision of the affected area
- C. Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
- D. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Diffuse endometriosis interna**, more commonly known as **Adenomyosis**, is a condition characterized by the presence of ectopic endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium, leading to a diffusely enlarged, "globular" uterus. 1. **Why Total Hysterectomy is correct:** In the diffuse form of adenomyosis, the ectopic tissue is scattered throughout the myometrium without a clear plane of cleavage. Because the disease is intrinsic to the uterine wall, **Total Hysterectomy** is the definitive treatment of choice for patients who have completed their childbearing, as it completely removes the pathology. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Localised excision (B):** This is only feasible in *Adenomyoma* (the focal form). In diffuse disease, there is no distinct margin, making complete excision impossible without compromising uterine integrity. * **Hysterectomy with BSO (C):** While this is an option, it is not the *minimum* surgery of choice. Since adenomyosis is a uterine pathology, removing the ovaries is not mandatory unless there is co-existing endometriosis or the patient is postmenopausal. * **Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (D):** Removing the ovaries alone does not remove the diseased uterine tissue and is not a standard primary treatment for adenomyosis. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad:** Secondary congestive dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, and a symmetrically enlarged, soft, tender (globular) uterus. * **MRI Finding:** The "gold standard" for diagnosis is MRI showing a **Junctional Zone (JZ) thickness >12 mm**. * **Histopathology:** Defined as endometrial tissue >2.5 mm below the basal layer of the endometrium. * **Medical Management:** Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the medical treatment of choice for symptom control.
Question 793: A 34-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for 3 years. On pelvic examination, there is a nodular, tender uterosacral ligament, a retroverted but normal-sized uterus, and a right adnexal mass. A recent pelvic ultrasound reveals a 6-cm right complex ovarian mass. Her CA-125 is elevated. What is the initial next step in management?
- A. GnRH agonist
- B. Diagnostic Hysterosalpingography
- C. Laparoscopy with cystectomy (Correct Answer)
- D. Laparoscopy and right oophorectomy
Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Laparoscopy with Cystectomy is Correct:** The clinical presentation—**chronic infertility, tender nodular uterosacral ligaments (pathognomonic), and a retroverted uterus**—strongly suggests **Endometriosis**. The 6-cm complex ovarian mass is likely an **Endometrioma** ("Chocolate cyst"). In a woman of reproductive age desiring fertility, the management of an endometrioma >4 cm is surgical. **Laparoscopy** is the gold standard for both diagnosis and treatment. **Cystectomy** (removal of the cyst wall) is preferred over simple aspiration or drainage because it significantly reduces the rate of recurrence and improves spontaneous pregnancy rates. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. GnRH Agonist:** While medical therapy can manage pain, it cannot resolve a large (6 cm) endometrioma and does not improve fertility. * **B. Diagnostic Hysterosalpingography (HSG):** While HSG is part of an infertility workup, it is contraindicated in the presence of an undiagnosed adnexal mass or active pelvic infection/inflammation. The priority here is treating the ovarian pathology. * **D. Laparoscopy and Right Oophorectomy:** This is too aggressive for a 34-year-old desiring pregnancy. Oophorectomy is generally reserved for postmenopausal women or cases where the ovary is completely destroyed or malignancy is suspected. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad of Endometriosis:** Dysmenorrhea, Dyspareunia, and Dyschezia. * **CA-125:** Often mildly elevated in endometriosis (usually <200 U/mL); it is used for monitoring recurrence rather than primary diagnosis. * **"Powder-burn" lesions:** The characteristic laparoscopic appearance of peritoneal endometriosis. * **Management Goal:** For infertility associated with large endometriomas, **Surgical excision > Medical suppression.**
Question 794: What is the most common form of vaginitis?
- A. Senile vaginitis
- B. Trichomonas vaginitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Gonococcal vaginitis
- D. Monilia vaginitis
Explanation: **Explanation:** Vaginitis is one of the most frequent reasons women seek gynecological care. Among the infectious causes, **Trichomonas vaginitis**, caused by the flagellated protozoan *Trichomonas vaginalis*, is traditionally cited in many standard textbooks as the most common symptomatic form of vaginitis globally, particularly in clinical settings where sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are prevalent. It is characterized by a malodorous, frothy, greenish-yellow discharge and the classic "strawberry cervix" (punctate hemorrhages). **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Senile vaginitis:** Also known as atrophic vaginitis, this is caused by estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal women. While common in that specific demographic, it is not the most common form in the general female population. * **C. Gonococcal vaginitis:** *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* primarily affects the endocervix rather than the vaginal epithelium in adult women (due to the resistant nature of stratified squamous epithelium). It is a common cause of cervicitis, not primary vaginitis. * **D. Monilia vaginitis:** Also known as Vulvovaginal Candidiasis (VVC), it is the second most common cause of vaginitis. It presents with intense pruritus and a "curdy white" cottage-cheese-like discharge. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Bacterial Vaginosis (BV):** In modern clinical practice, BV is actually the most common cause of vaginal discharge; however, if the question specifically asks for "vaginitis" (inflammation), *Trichomonas* is the classic answer as BV is a "vaginosis" (replacement of flora without significant inflammation). 2. **Whiff Test:** Positive (fishy odor) in Bacterial Vaginosis and sometimes in Trichomoniasis. 3. **pH Changes:** Vaginal pH is **>4.5** in Trichomoniasis and BV, but remains **normal (<4.5)** in Candidiasis. 4. **Treatment of Choice:** For Trichomoniasis, the gold standard is **Oral Metronidazole** (treat both partners to prevent reinfection).
Question 795: Ampullary pregnancy ruptures generally at how many weeks?
- A. 6 weeks
- B. 8 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. 12 weeks
- D. 16 weeks
Explanation: **Explanation:** The timing of rupture in an ectopic pregnancy is primarily determined by the **distensibility and diameter** of the specific anatomical site where the embryo implants. **1. Why 8 weeks is correct:** The **ampulla** is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy (70-80%). It is the widest and most distensible part of the Fallopian tube. Because of this relative roominess, the tube can accommodate the growing gestational sac longer than the narrow isthmus. Rupture typically occurs when the stretching limit is reached, which is generally around **8 weeks** of gestation. **2. Analysis of incorrect options:** * **6 weeks (Option A):** This is the typical timing for rupture of an **isthmic pregnancy**. The isthmus is the narrowest part of the tube with minimal distensibility, leading to early rupture. * **12 weeks (Option C):** This is the characteristic timing for an **interstitial (cornual) pregnancy**. Since the interstitial part is surrounded by thick, vascular myometrium, it can expand significantly more than the extra-uterine tube before rupturing. * **16 weeks (Option D):** While some interstitial pregnancies can last until 16 weeks, this is too late for an ampullary pregnancy, which lacks the muscular support to reach the second trimester. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of Ectopic:** Ampulla (70-80%). * **Most common site of Rupture:** Isthmus (due to narrow lumen). * **Most dangerous site:** Interstitial (due to risk of massive hemorrhage from the uterine artery branch). * **Classic Triad:** Amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding (present in only 50% of cases). * **Key Sign:** Adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness (Chandelier sign).
Question 796: Diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis by microscopy of vaginal discharge is supported by all of the following, EXCEPT:
- A. Absence of lactobacilli
- B. Presence of clue cells
- C. Abundance of polymorphs (Correct Answer)
- D. Abundance of gram-positive coccobacilli
Explanation: **Explanation:** Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) is a clinical syndrome characterized by a shift in the vaginal flora from dominant *Lactobacillus* species to an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria (e.g., *Gardnerella vaginalis*, *Mobiluncus*, and *Mycoplasma hominis*). **Why "Abundance of polymorphs" is the correct answer:** Bacterial Vaginosis is fundamentally a **dysbiosis**, not a true inflammatory condition (hence the term "vaginosis" rather than "vaginitis"). A hallmark of BV is the **absence of an inflammatory response**; therefore, microscopy typically shows very few or no polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs/pus cells). If an abundance of polymorphs is seen, clinicians should suspect a co-infection (like Trichomoniasis or Cervicitis) rather than isolated BV. **Analysis of other options:** * **Absence of lactobacilli:** In BV, the normal hydrogen peroxide-producing Lactobacilli are significantly reduced or absent, leading to an increase in vaginal pH (>4.5). * **Presence of clue cells:** These are vaginal epithelial cells coated with coccobacilli, giving them a "stippled" or "shaggy" appearance. They are the most specific diagnostic criterion for BV. * **Abundance of gram-positive coccobacilli:** While *Gardnerella* is gram-variable, the overgrowth of various anaerobic morphotypes (including small gram-negative and gram-variable rods/coccobacilli) replaces the large gram-positive rods (Lactobacilli). **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Amsel’s Criteria (3 out of 4 required):** * Thin, homogenous, grayish-white discharge. * Vaginal pH > 4.5. * Positive Whiff test (fishy odor with 10% KOH). * Presence of Clue cells on wet mount (>20%). 2. **Nugent Scoring:** The "Gold Standard" for diagnosis, based on a weighted Gram stain score (0–10). 3. **Treatment:** Drug of choice is **Metronidazole** (500 mg BID for 7 days). Treatment of the male partner is not recommended.
Question 797: In cases of recurrent abortions, what is the most common uterine malformation seen?
- A. Mullerian fusion defects (Correct Answer)
- B. Uterine syncytium
- C. Unicornuate uterus
- D. Uterine agenesis
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Mullerian Fusion Defects are Correct:** Mullerian duct anomalies (MDAs) are a significant cause of recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL). Among these, **Mullerian fusion defects** (specifically the **Septate uterus** and **Bicornuate uterus**) are the most frequently encountered malformations in clinical practice. * **Septate Uterus:** This is the most common anomaly associated with recurrent abortions. The septum is composed of fibroelastic tissue with poor vascularization; when an embryo implants on the septum, it fails to receive adequate blood supply, leading to early pregnancy loss. * **Bicornuate Uterus:** This results from partial non-fusion of the Mullerian ducts, leading to a reduced uterine cavity volume and cervical insufficiency, often causing second-trimester losses. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Uterine Syncytium:** This is a physiological term related to the structure of the myometrium or placental trophoblasts; it is not a structural malformation. * **Unicornuate Uterus:** This is a **Mullerian agenesis/lateral fusion defect** (failure of one duct to develop). While it is associated with poor obstetric outcomes, it is statistically less common than fusion defects like septate or bicornuate uteri. * **Uterine Agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome):** This involves the congenital absence of the uterus. Since pregnancy is impossible without a uterus, it cannot be a cause of "abortion." **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common MDA overall:** Septate Uterus (also has the highest rate of reproductive failure). * **Best initial investigation:** Transvaginal Ultrasound (TVS) or HSG. * **Gold Standard for diagnosis:** Combined Laparoscopy and Hysteroscopy (to differentiate between Septate and Bicornuate). * **Treatment of choice for Septate Uterus:** Hysteroscopic Septal Resection. * **DES exposure** is associated with a **T-shaped uterus**.
Question 798: Multiple small mucinous cysts of the endocervix that result from blockage of endocervical glands by overlying squamous metaplastic epithelium are called what?
- A. Bartholin's cysts
- B. Chocolate cysts
- C. Gartner's duct cysts
- D. Nabothian cysts (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: D. Nabothian cysts** Nabothian cysts (also known as epithelial inclusion cysts or mucinous retention cysts) are a common, benign finding on the cervix. They occur during the physiological process of **squamous metaplasia** in the transformation zone. As the squamous epithelium grows over the columnar endocervical epithelium, it can obstruct the orifices of the endocervical crypts (glands). The underlying columnar cells continue to secrete mucus, which accumulates and forms small, translucent, or yellowish cysts on the ectocervix. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Bartholin's cysts:** These are located in the **vulva**, specifically at the 4 or 8 o'clock position of the vaginal introitus. They result from the obstruction of the Bartholin’s gland duct, not the endocervical glands. * **B. Chocolate cysts:** These are **endometriomas** of the ovary. They contain dark, altered blood (resembling chocolate) and are a manifestation of endometriosis, unrelated to cervical metaplasia. * **C. Gartner's duct cysts:** These are vestigial remnants of the **Wolffian (mesonephric) duct**. They are typically found on the **anterolateral wall of the vagina**, not the cervix. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Appearance:** Nabothian cysts appear as smooth, shiny, white or yellow bumps on the cervix during speculum examination. * **Management:** They are considered a normal physiological finding and **require no treatment** unless they become exceptionally large or symptomatic. * **Transformation Zone:** This is the most common site for both Nabothian cysts and Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN), making it the most critical area to sample during a Pap smear.
Question 799: A woman presents with a fluctuant non-tender swelling at the introitus. What is the best treatment?
- A. Marsupilization (Correct Answer)
- B. Incision and drainage
- C. Surgical resection
- D. Aspiration
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a fluctuant, non-tender swelling at the introitus is classic for a **Bartholin’s cyst**. These cysts occur due to the obstruction of the Bartholin’s gland duct, leading to the accumulation of secretions. **Why Marsupialization is the Correct Answer:** Marsupialization is the gold standard treatment for symptomatic Bartholin’s cysts. The procedure involves incising the cyst and suturing the cyst wall to the vaginal mucosa. This creates a permanent "pouch" or new ductal opening, which allows for continuous drainage and prevents the re-accumulation of fluid. It preserves the function of the gland (lubrication) while significantly reducing the rate of recurrence. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Incision and Drainage (I&D):** While it provides immediate relief, it is associated with a very high recurrence rate (nearly 100%) because the skin edges typically close and heal before the cyst cavity is obliterated, leading to re-obstruction. * **Surgical Resection (Excision):** This involves removing the entire gland. It is usually reserved for recurrent cases or post-menopausal women (to rule out rare Bartholin’s gland carcinoma). It is not the first-line treatment due to risks of significant hemorrhage and scarring. * **Aspiration:** Using a needle to drain the fluid is ineffective as the cyst refills almost immediately. It is only used for diagnostic purposes or temporary relief in pregnancy. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Location:** Bartholin’s glands are located at the **4 o'clock and 8 o'clock** positions in the posterior third of the labia majora. * **Bartholin’s Abscess:** If the cyst becomes infected (often polymicrobial or *N. gonorrhoeae*), it becomes exquisitely tender. Treatment remains marsupialization or Word catheter insertion. * **Word Catheter:** An alternative to marsupialization where a small balloon is left in the cyst for 4–6 weeks to create a permanent epithelialized tract.
Question 800: Vaginal atresia is associated with all except:
- A. Lack of development of the lower part of the vagina
- B. Normal secondary sexual characteristics
- C. Normal female external genitalia
- D. Presence of a cervix (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Vaginal atresia** is a congenital malformation resulting from the failure of the **urogenital sinus** to form the lower portion of the vagina. It is distinct from Müllerian agenesis (MRKH syndrome). **Why "Presence of a cervix" is the correct answer (the exception):** In vaginal atresia, the upper reproductive tract (uterus, cervix, and upper vagina) is derived from the Müllerian ducts. However, because the lower vaginal development is arrested, there is often associated **Müllerian dysgenesis**. In most clinical cases of isolated vaginal atresia, the **cervix is typically absent or severely hypoplastic**, and the uterus may be rudimentary or absent. Therefore, the presence of a normal cervix is not a characteristic feature. **Analysis of incorrect options:** * **Option A:** This is the definition of the condition. It occurs when the vaginal plate fails to canalize, leading to a lack of development of the lower vagina, replaced by fibrous tissue. * **Option B:** Since the ovaries are derived from germ cells (not the urogenital sinus or Müllerian ducts), they function normally. Estrogen production is intact, leading to **normal secondary sexual characteristics** (Thelarche and Adrenarche). * **Option C:** The external genitalia (clitoris, labia) develop from the genital tubercle and swellings, which are unaffected in this condition. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Presentation:** Primary amenorrhea with cyclic pelvic pain (due to hematometra if a functional uterus exists). * **Vaginal Atresia vs. Imperforate Hymen:** In atresia, there is no bulging "blue membrane" on provocation; instead, a dimple or shallow pouch is seen. * **Embryology:** Lower 1/3 of the vagina comes from the **urogenital sinus**; upper 2/3 comes from **Müllerian ducts**. * **Management:** Surgical reconstruction (Vaginoplasty) is the treatment of choice.
Practice by Chapter
Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
Practice Questions
Endometriosis
Practice Questions
Adenomyosis
Practice Questions
Uterine Fibroids
Practice Questions
Ovarian Cysts
Practice Questions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Practice Questions
Vulvovaginitis
Practice Questions
Pelvic Organ Prolapse
Practice Questions
Vulvar Disorders
Practice Questions
Benign Breast Diseases
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