Gynecological Disorders — MCQs
On this page
Uterine fibromyoma is associated with which of the following conditions?
Which of the following statements is true about a dermoid cyst of the ovary?
The squamocolumnar junction is usually located at what distance from the external cervical os?
What is the treatment for red degeneration of a fibroid during pregnancy?
What is the most common symptom present in an undisturbed ectopic pregnancy?
What is cryptomenorrhoea?
Uterine height more than corresponding gestational age, with complaints of vomiting and pervaginal bleeding, favors which diagnosis?
A female patient with a 45X0 genotype presents with primary amenorrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Danazol used in the treatment of endometriosis causes which of the following changes within the endometrium and endometriosis tissue?
What is the cause of acidic pH of the vagina?
Gynecological Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: Uterine fibromyoma is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Endometriosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- C. Ovarian cancer
- D. Amenorrhea
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Uterine Fibromyoma (Leiomyoma)** and **Endometriosis** are frequently found together because they share a common hormonal milieu. Both conditions are **estrogen-dependent**; high levels of circulating estrogen promote the growth of fibroid smooth muscle cells and the proliferation of ectopic endometrial tissue. Clinical studies indicate that approximately 20–25% of women with endometriosis also have uterine fibroids. Furthermore, both conditions share similar risk factors, such as nulliparity and early menarche. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID):** PID is an infectious and inflammatory process (usually due to *N. gonorrhoeae* or *C. trachomatis*). While a large fibroid can theoretically undergo red degeneration and mimic an acute abdomen, there is no direct hormonal or pathological association between fibroids and PID. * **C. Ovarian Cancer:** There is no established causal or strong statistical link between benign leiomyomas and ovarian malignancy. * **D. Amenorrhea:** Fibroids are characteristically associated with **menorrhagia** (heavy menstrual bleeding) or metrorrhagia, not the absence of menstruation. Amenorrhea is more likely associated with PCOS, pregnancy, or premature ovarian failure. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Hyperestrogenism:** This is the common denominator for the "Triad of Estrogen Dependence": Fibroids, Endometriosis, and Endometrial Hyperplasia/Carcinoma. * **Red Degeneration:** The most common change in fibroids during pregnancy (due to rapid growth and ischemia). * **Hyaline Degeneration:** The most common overall degeneration of fibroids. * **Adenomysosis:** Often co-exists with fibroids and is sometimes referred to as "endometriosis interna."
Question 772: Which of the following statements is true about a dermoid cyst of the ovary?
- A. It is a teratoma.
- B. It frequently undergoes torsion.
- C. X-ray is diagnostic.
- D. All of the above. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: A **Dermoid Cyst**, also known as a **Mature Cystic Teratoma**, is the most common germ cell tumor of the ovary, typically occurring during the reproductive years. ### **Explanation of Options:** * **Option A (It is a teratoma):** Dermoid cysts are mature cystic teratomas derived from at least two of the three germ cell layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They most commonly contain ectodermal structures like skin, hair, and sebaceous material. * **Option B (It frequently undergoes torsion):** Torsion is the most common complication of a dermoid cyst (occurring in ~15% of cases). This is due to the cyst's heavy weight (from sebaceous material/teeth) and a long pedicle, which makes it prone to axial rotation. * **Option C (X-ray is diagnostic):** In approximately 30–50% of cases, a plain abdominal X-ray can reveal pathognomonic features such as **calcifications (teeth)** or a radiolucent area representing high fat content, making it a diagnostic tool in clinical practice. Since all statements are clinically accurate, **Option D** is the correct answer. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common complication:** Torsion (followed by rupture and infection). * **Malignant transformation:** Rare (<2%), most commonly into **Squamous Cell Carcinoma**. * **Ultrasound findings:** Look for the **"Tip of the Iceberg" sign** (acoustic shadowing from hair/sebum) and **Rokitansky protuberance** (dermoid plug). * **Bilaterality:** Occurs in 10–15% of cases. * **Chemical Peritonitis:** Occurs if the cyst ruptures, leading to intense inflammatory reaction due to the sebaceous fluid.
Question 773: The squamocolumnar junction is usually located at what distance from the external cervical os?
- A. 2.5 mm
- B. 8-13 mm (Correct Answer)
- C. 20-30 mm
- D. 40-50 mm
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Squamocolumnar Junction (SCJ)** is the critical anatomical boundary where the stratified squamous epithelium of the ectocervix meets the simple columnar epithelium of the endocervix. **Why 8-13 mm is correct:** In women of reproductive age, the SCJ is typically located within the cervical canal, approximately **8 to 13 mm** proximal to the external os. This region is dynamic; the original SCJ moves due to hormonal influences (puberty, pregnancy, and menopause) and vaginal pH changes. The area between the original SCJ and the new SCJ is known as the **Transformation Zone (TZ)**, which is the most common site for the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and squamous cell carcinoma. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A (2.5 mm):** This distance is too short and does not account for the typical length of the endocervical canal involved in the transformation process. * **C & D (20-50 mm):** These distances are too large. The entire length of the cervix is only about 25-30 mm; therefore, an SCJ located 40-50 mm away would be well into the uterine body (isthmus), which is anatomically incorrect. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Transformation Zone:** This is the "hotspot" for HPV infection and oncogenesis. * **Metaplasia:** The process where columnar epithelium changes to squamous epithelium is called squamous metaplasia. * **Age-related shifts:** In postmenopausal women, the SCJ recedes deep into the endocervical canal (receding SCJ), often making colposcopy "unsatisfactory" as the TZ cannot be fully visualized. * **Nabothian Cysts:** These form when squamous metaplasia obstructs the openings of endocervical crypts, trapping mucus.
Question 774: What is the treatment for red degeneration of a fibroid during pregnancy?
- A. Analgesics (Correct Answer)
- B. Laparotomy
- C. Termination of pregnancy
- D. Removal at cesarean section
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Red Degeneration (Carneous Degeneration)** is the most common complication of uterine fibroids during pregnancy, typically occurring in the second trimester. It is caused by rapid growth of the fibroid due to high estrogen levels, leading to the tumor outgrowing its blood supply. This results in venous thrombosis and interstitial hemorrhage, causing acute abdominal pain, localized tenderness, and low-grade fever. **Why Analgesics is the Correct Answer:** Red degeneration is a **self-limiting condition**. The management is strictly **conservative**. The primary goal is pain relief, typically achieved with bed rest, intravenous fluids, and analgesics (NSAIDs like Ibuprofen are used, though avoided near term due to risk of premature closure of the ductus arteriosus). Most cases resolve within 4–7 days without surgical intervention. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Laparotomy:** Surgical exploration is contraindicated as it carries a high risk of stimulating uterine contractions, leading to miscarriage or preterm labor. * **Termination of Pregnancy:** This is unnecessary as the condition does not pose a direct threat to the fetus and resolves with medical management. * **Removal at Cesarean Section:** Myomectomy during pregnancy or at the time of C-section is generally avoided due to the risk of uncontrollable hemorrhage from the highly vascular gravid uterus. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Pathology:** Characterized by a "beefy red" appearance and a fishy odor due to the presence of hemosiderin and peripheral hemolysis. * **Investigation of Choice:** Ultrasound (shows a cystic/complex mass); MRI is more definitive but rarely needed. * **Key Rule:** Myomectomy is generally contraindicated during pregnancy unless the fibroid is pedunculated and undergoes torsion.
Question 775: What is the most common symptom present in an undisturbed ectopic pregnancy?
- A. Pain in the lower abdomen (Correct Answer)
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Bleeding per vaginum
- D. Fainting attack
Explanation: **Explanation:** In an **undisturbed ectopic pregnancy**, the classic clinical triad consists of amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. However, **pain in the lower abdomen** is the most common and consistent symptom, occurring in approximately 95–99% of cases. 1. **Why Pain is the Correct Answer:** The pain is typically dull and localized to the iliac fossa on the affected side. It is caused by the distension of the fallopian tube by the growing conceptus or by tubal contractions attempting to expel the pregnancy. Even before rupture or tubal abortion occurs, this stretching of the tubal serosa triggers visceral pain, making it the most frequent presenting complaint. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Amenorrhea (B):** While a key feature, it is absent in about 25% of cases, as patients may mistake early vaginal bleeding for a normal period. * **Bleeding per vaginum (C):** This occurs in about 75% of cases. It is usually "scanty, dark-colored, and spotting" in nature, resulting from the breakdown of the decidua due to falling progesterone levels. * **Fainting attack (D):** This is a sign of **ruptured** ectopic pregnancy (due to hemoperitoneum and hypovolemia), not an undisturbed one. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common site:** Fallopian tube (97%), specifically the **Ampulla** (most common overall). * **Most common site for rupture:** Isthmus (occurs early, around 6–8 weeks). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Transvaginal Ultrasound (TVUS) combined with serial β-hCG levels. * **Arias-Stella Reaction:** Hypersecretory endometrium seen on curettage, suggestive but not diagnostic of ectopic pregnancy.
Question 776: What is cryptomenorrhoea?
- A. Seen in cases of imperforate hymen
- B. Haematocolpos is present
- C. Retention of urine may be seen
- D. All the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Cryptomenorrhoea** (hidden menstruation) refers to a condition where menstruation occurs periodically, but the menstrual blood fails to flow out of the genital tract due to an obstruction in the outflow tract. **Why Option D is Correct:** * **Imperforate Hymen (Option A):** This is the most common cause of cryptomenorrhoea. The vaginal opening is completely occluded by a membrane, leading to the accumulation of menstrual blood behind it. * **Haematocolpos (Option B):** As menstrual blood is retained, it first distends the vagina, a condition known as *haematocolpos*. If left untreated, it can progress to *haematometra* (blood in the uterus) and *haematosalpinx* (blood in the fallopian tubes). * **Retention of Urine (Option C):** This is a classic clinical presentation. The massive distension of the vagina (haematocolpos) causes the cervix to be pushed anteriorly, compressing the urethra and the neck of the bladder, leading to acute urinary retention. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Classic Presentation:** A pubertal girl (13–15 years) presenting with primary amenorrhea, cyclical lower abdominal pain, and a palpable suprapubic lump or acute urinary retention. 2. **Physical Exam:** On local examination, a **tense, bulging, bluish membrane** is seen at the introitus. 3. **Treatment:** The definitive treatment is a **cruciate incision** on the hymen to drain the accumulated "chocolate-colored" (altered) blood. 4. **Differential Diagnosis:** Must be distinguished from transverse vaginal septum or vaginal atresia, though the clinical management principles for cryptomenorrhoea remain similar.
Question 777: Uterine height more than corresponding gestational age, with complaints of vomiting and pervaginal bleeding, favors which diagnosis?
- A. Hydatidiform mole (Correct Answer)
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Placenta previa
- D. Abruptio placentae
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical triad of **uterine size greater than dates**, **hyperemesis gravidarum** (excessive vomiting), and **painless vaginal bleeding** is a classic presentation of a **Hydatidiform Mole** (Molar Pregnancy). 1. **Why Hydatidiform Mole is correct:** In a molar pregnancy, the abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue and the accumulation of fluid within the chorionic villi (hydropic degeneration) lead to rapid uterine enlargement, often exceeding the expected gestational age. The markedly elevated levels of **hCG** (human chorionic gonadotropin) stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone, causing severe vomiting. The bleeding occurs due to the separation of the molar tissue from the decidua. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Threatened Abortion:** While it presents with bleeding, the uterine size is typically **equal** to the gestational age, and hyperemesis is not a defining feature. * **Placenta Previa:** Presents with painless, bright red bleeding, but usually in the **third trimester**. Uterine size is typically appropriate for dates. * **Abruptio Placentae:** Characterized by painful bleeding and a "woody hard" uterus. While the uterus may be slightly larger due to a concealed retroplacental clot, it lacks the hyperemesis and the characteristic "snowstorm" appearance on ultrasound associated with moles. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **USG Finding:** "Snowstorm appearance" or "Bunch of grapes" appearance. * **Ovarian Finding:** Bilateral **Theca Lutein Cysts** (due to high hCG). * **Complication:** Early-onset Preeclampsia (before 20 weeks) is highly suggestive of a molar pregnancy. * **Management:** Suction and Evacuation is the treatment of choice.
Question 778: A female patient with a 45X0 genotype presents with primary amenorrhea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gonadal Dysgenesis (Correct Answer)
- B. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
- C. Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser Syndrome
- D. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Gonadal Dysgenesis (Turner Syndrome)**. **1. Why Gonadal Dysgenesis is Correct:** The 45,X0 genotype is the hallmark of Turner Syndrome, the most common cause of primary amenorrhea due to hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. In these patients, the absence of the second X chromosome leads to accelerated oocyte atresia, resulting in "streak ovaries" (fibrous tissue without follicles). Because the ovaries fail to produce estrogen, there is no endometrial stimulation, leading to primary amenorrhea and lack of secondary sexual characteristics. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS):** The genotype is **46,XY**. These patients have testes and high testosterone, but due to receptor resistance, they develop a female phenotype. They have a blind-ending vagina and absent uterus. * **Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) Syndrome:** The genotype is **46,XX**. It is characterized by Müllerian agenesis (absent uterus and upper vagina), but the ovaries are functional, meaning secondary sexual characteristics are present. * **Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH):** The genotype is **46,XX**. It typically presents with ambiguous genitalia (virilization) due to excess androgens, not primary amenorrhea with a 45,X0 karyotype. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cardiac defect in Turner:** Bicuspid aortic valve (most common overall) and Coarctation of aorta. * **Renal anomaly:** Horseshoe kidney. * **Hormonal Profile:** High FSH/LH (due to lack of negative feedback) and low Estrogen. * **Physical Stigmata:** Short stature, webbed neck (pterygium colli), shield chest, and low hairline. * **Management:** Growth hormone for height; Estrogen/Progesterone for secondary sexual characteristics and bone health.
Question 779: Danazol used in the treatment of endometriosis causes which of the following changes within the endometrium and endometriosis tissue?
- A. Aplasia
- B. Atrophy (Correct Answer)
- C. Hyperplasia
- D. Neoplasia
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Danazol** is a synthetic steroid derived from ethisterone that creates a unique hormonal environment often described as a **"pseudomenopausal state."** **Why Atrophy is the Correct Answer:** Danazol acts through multiple mechanisms to suppress the growth of endometrial tissue: 1. **Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian (HPO) Axis Suppression:** It inhibits the mid-cycle surge of LH and FSH, leading to a state of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. 2. **Enzyme Inhibition:** It inhibits steroidogenic enzymes in the ovary, directly lowering estrogen levels. 3. **Direct Action:** It binds to androgen and progesterone receptors in the endometrium. The net result of low estrogen and high androgenic activity is the **atrophy** of both the functional layer of the uterine endometrium and ectopic endometriotic implants, leading to symptomatic relief and amenorrhea. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Aplasia:** This refers to the failure of an organ or tissue to develop. Danazol causes regression of existing tissue, not a developmental failure. * **Hyperplasia:** This is the proliferation of cells (often due to unopposed estrogen). Danazol is anti-estrogenic and thus prevents hyperplasia. * **Neoplasia:** This refers to new, uncontrolled abnormal growth (cancer). Danazol is used to treat benign proliferation, not induce malignancy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Side Effects:** Due to its androgenic nature, Danazol causes weight gain, acne, hirsutism, deepening of the voice (often irreversible), and oily skin. * **Lipid Profile:** It decreases HDL and increases LDL levels. * **Other Uses:** Besides endometriosis, it is used in Hereditary Angioedema (increases C4 levels) and Fibrocystic Breast Disease. * **Contraindication:** It is strictly contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of virilization of a female fetus.
Question 780: What is the cause of acidic pH of the vagina?
- A. Doderlein Bacilli (Correct Answer)
- B. Gardnerella
- C. Mobilincus
- D. Glycogen
Explanation: **Explanation:** The acidic environment of the vagina (normal pH 3.8 to 4.5) is a critical defense mechanism against pathogenic infections. **Why Doderlein Bacilli is correct:** Doderlein bacilli (predominantly *Lactobacillus acidophilus*) are the commensal flora of the vagina. Under the influence of estrogen, the vaginal epithelium thickens and accumulates **glycogen**. Doderlein bacilli metabolize this glycogen into **lactic acid**. This production of lactic acid maintains the low vaginal pH, which inhibits the growth of most other pathogenic bacteria. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Gardnerella (B) & Mobilincus (C):** These are anaerobic bacteria associated with **Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)**. In BV, these organisms replace the Lactobacilli, leading to a decrease in lactic acid and a subsequent **rise in pH (>4.5)**. * **Glycogen (D):** While glycogen is the *substrate* required for the process, it is not the *cause* of the acidity itself. Glycogen must be converted into lactic acid by the bacteria to lower the pH. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Estrogen Dependency:** The acidic pH is only present when estrogen levels are high (puberty to menopause). In prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women, the pH is neutral or alkaline (pH 6–7) due to a lack of glycogen and Lactobacilli. * **Whiff Test:** In Bacterial Vaginosis (alkaline pH), adding 10% KOH to vaginal discharge releases a "fishy odor" due to the volatilization of amines. * **Amniotic Fluid:** The pH of amniotic fluid is alkaline (7.0–7.5). Nitrazine paper turning blue (indicating alkaline pH) is used to diagnose the rupture of membranes.
Practice by Chapter
Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
Practice Questions
Endometriosis
Practice Questions
Adenomyosis
Practice Questions
Uterine Fibroids
Practice Questions
Ovarian Cysts
Practice Questions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Practice Questions
Vulvovaginitis
Practice Questions
Pelvic Organ Prolapse
Practice Questions
Vulvar Disorders
Practice Questions
Benign Breast Diseases
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free