Gynecological Disorders Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following procedures can be performed for all of the following conditions except?

Removal of displaced copper-T. The question refers to procedures performed via **Posterior Colpotomy** (entering the Pouch of Douglas through the posterior vaginal fornix). ### **Explanation** **Why "Removal of displaced Copper-T" is the correct answer:** When a Copper-T (IUCD) is "displaced," it has often perforated the uterus and migrated into the peritoneal cavity. While a simple pelvic Copper-T could theoretically be reached via colpotomy, it is **not the standard of care**. A displaced IUCD can migrate anywhere in the abdomen (omentum, paracolic gutters, or near the bowel). Therefore, **Laparoscopy** is the gold standard for locating and removing a displaced IUCD, as it provides a superior field of view compared to the restricted access of a colpotomy. ### **Analysis of Other Options:** * **A. Tubal Sterilization:** Posterior colpotomy was historically a common route for tubal ligation (vaginal tubectomy). Though largely replaced by laparoscopy, it remains a valid surgical approach. * **B. Removal of Fibroids/Myxoma:** Small, pedunculated subserous fibroids or prolapsed pedunculated submucous fibroids (sometimes referred to as "myxomas" in older texts) located in the Pouch of Douglas can be removed via this route. * **D. Drainage of Pelvic Abscess:** This is the **classic indication** for posterior colpotomy (Colpotomy Drainage). If a pelvic abscess is pointing into the posterior fornix, it is drained here to ensure dependent drainage. ### **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Culdocentesis:** A diagnostic procedure using a needle to aspirate fluid from the Pouch of Douglas (used for suspected ruptured ectopic pregnancy or pelvic inflammatory disease). * **Colpotomy vs. Culdotomy:** Often used interchangeably; it involves an incision into the vaginal wall to reach the peritoneal cavity. * **Contraindication:** Colpotomy should never be performed if the Pouch of Douglas is obliterated (e.g., severe endometriosis or dense adhesions).

Q: Acute pain in fibroid is due to all except?

Hyaline degeneration. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C. Hyaline degeneration.** In clinical practice, pain associated with uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) is typically caused by acute vascular compromise or rapid growth. **Why Hyaline Degeneration is the correct answer:** Hyaline degeneration is the **most common** type of degeneration in fibroids. It is a **chronic, asymptomatic** process where the smooth muscle cells are replaced by homogenous eosinophilic (hyaline) tissue. Because it occurs slowly and does not involve acute ischemia or inflammation, it is typically painless and usually an incidental finding on histopathology. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Torsion:** This occurs in **pedunculated subserosal fibroids**. The twisting of the pedicle cuts off the blood supply, leading to acute ischemia and sudden, severe abdominal pain (an abdominal emergency). * **Red Degeneration (Necrobiosis):** This is most common during the **second trimester of pregnancy**. Rapid growth of the fibroid outstrips its blood supply, leading to venous thrombosis and interstitial hemorrhage. It presents with acute pain, localized tenderness, and low-grade fever. * **Sarcomatous Change:** Although rare (<0.5%), malignant transformation into leiomyosarcoma involves rapid growth and tissue necrosis, which can cause significant pelvic pain. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common degeneration overall:** Hyaline degeneration. * **Most common degeneration in pregnancy:** Red degeneration (due to protein denaturation/hemorrhage). * **Most common degeneration after menopause:** Calcific degeneration. * **Cystic degeneration** often follows hyaline degeneration as the tissue liquefies. * **Management of Red Degeneration:** Always managed **conservatively** with bed rest and analgesics; surgery is contraindicated during pregnancy.

Q: A 25-year-old woman has experienced discomfort during sexual intercourse for the past month. On physical examination, there are no lesions of the external genitalia. Pelvic examination shows a focal area of swelling on the left posterolateral inner labium that is very tender on palpation. A 3-cm cystic lesion filled with purulent exudate is excised. In which of the following structures is this lesion most likely to develop?

Bartholin gland. ### Explanation **Correct Option: A. Bartholin gland** The clinical presentation is classic for a **Bartholin gland abscess**. The Bartholin glands (greater vestibular glands) are located deep to the posterior third of the labia majora, with ducts opening at the **4 o'clock and 8 o'clock positions** (posterolateral) on the inner labium, just outside the hymenal ring. Obstruction of the duct leads to cyst formation; if the fluid becomes infected (often by *E. coli* or *N. gonorrhoeae*), it forms a painful, tender, fluctuant abscess. The location (posterolateral inner labium) and the presence of purulent exudate are pathognomonic. **Incorrect Options:** * **B. Gartner duct:** These are remnants of the Wolffian (mesonephric) duct. They typically present as asymptomatic cysts on the **lateral walls of the vagina**, not on the labia. * **C. Hair follicle:** Infection of a hair follicle (folliculitis/furuncle) occurs on the **hair-bearing areas** (labia majora). The inner labium (vestibule) is non-keratinized and lacks hair follicles. * **D. Urogenital diaphragm:** This is a deep muscular layer of the pelvic floor. A lesion here would be deep-seated and would not present as a focal, superficial labial swelling. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Treatment:** Simple incision and drainage (I&D) have high recurrence rates. The gold standard is **Word catheter insertion** or **Marsupialization**. * **Age Factor:** In women **over 40 years**, a new Bartholin mass must be biopsied to rule out **Bartholin gland carcinoma** (most commonly squamous cell or adenocarcinoma). * **Anatomy:** Bartholin glands are homologous to the **Bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands** in males.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about herpes simplex genitalis?

May lead to malignancy. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C (May lead to malignancy)**. While Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 (HSV-2) was historically suspected of being linked to cervical cancer, extensive epidemiological and molecular studies have proven that it is **not oncogenic**. Cervical malignancy is primarily caused by High-Risk Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. HSV-2 may act as a "co-factor" by causing inflammation, but it does not directly lead to malignancy. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A:** Genital herpes is indeed caused by the **Herpes Simplex Virus**, most commonly **HSV-2** (80-90%), though HSV-1 (traditionally associated with orolabial lesions) is increasingly causing genital infections due to changing sexual practices. * **Option B:** The risk of vertical transmission to the fetus is highest (**30-50%**) if the mother acquires a **primary infection** near the time of delivery (at term). In contrast, the risk is very low (<1%) during recurrent episodes due to the presence of maternal antibodies. * **Option D:** **Acyclovir** (or Valacyclovir/Famciclovir) is the standard antiviral treatment. It reduces viral shedding, accelerates healing, and decreases the frequency of recurrences, although it does not cure the latent infection in the sacral ganglia. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Diagnosis:** The gold standard is Viral Culture or PCR. On Tzanck smear, look for **Multinucleated Giant Cells** and **Cowdry Type A** inclusion bodies. * **Management at Term:** If active lesions or prodromal symptoms are present at the time of labor, a **Cesarean Section** is indicated to prevent neonatal herpes. * **Prophylaxis:** Oral acyclovir is often started at **36 weeks gestation** in women with a history of recurrent genital herpes to prevent outbreaks at term.

Q: Which of the following drugs used in the medical management of fibroids does NOT decrease their size?

NSAIDs. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. NSAIDs**. **Medical Concept:** Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) are estrogen- and progesterone-dependent benign tumors. Medical management aimed at reducing their size must interfere with this hormonal axis. **NSAIDs (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs)**, such as Ibuprofen or Mefenamic acid, act by inhibiting the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme and reducing prostaglandin synthesis. While they are highly effective in managing the **symptoms** of fibroids—specifically dysmenorrhea (pain) and menorrhagia (heavy bleeding)—they have no effect on the cellular proliferation or the volume of the fibroid tissue itself. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Mifepristone:** This is a Selective Progesterone Receptor Modulator (SPRM). Since progesterone is vital for fibroid growth, mifepristone effectively reduces fibroid volume and induces amenorrhea. * **B. GnRH Agonists (e.g., Leuprolide):** These cause initial stimulation followed by downregulation of pituitary receptors, leading to a state of "pseudomenopause" (hypoestrogenism). They can reduce fibroid size by 30–50% within 3 months. * **C. GnRH Antagonists (e.g., Elagolix):** These provide immediate suppression of gonadotropins without the initial "flare effect" seen with agonists, leading to a rapid reduction in fibroid size. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard for Size Reduction:** GnRH agonists are the most effective for preoperative shrinkage (usually given for 3 months prior to surgery). * **Ulipristal Acetate:** Another SPRM used for size reduction, though its use is now restricted due to potential hepatotoxicity. * **First-line for Menorrhagia in Fibroids:** Often Tranexamic acid or NSAIDs (symptomatic) or Levonorgestrel-IUD (Mirena), though Mirena does not significantly shrink large subserosal/intramural fibroids.

Q: Which of the following statements is false regarding hydrosalpinx in pelvic inflammatory disease?

The wall of the hydrosalpinx is thick and edematous. **Explanation:** **1. Why Option B is the Correct (False) Statement:** In chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a hydrosalpinx occurs when the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube becomes occluded, leading to the accumulation of sterile serous fluid. Because the tube is distended under pressure over a long period, the muscular wall undergoes **atrophy and thinning**, rather than becoming thick or edematous. On gross examination, the wall is often described as **translucent or "paper-thin,"** resembling a retort-shaped flask. Thick, edematous walls are more characteristic of acute salpingitis or a pyosalpinx. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Often bilateral):** This is a true statement. PID is an ascending infection; therefore, the inflammatory process and subsequent tubal blockage typically affect both fallopian tubes. * **Option C (Histology):** This is a true statement. The chronic distension causes mechanical pressure, leading to the **flattening of the mucosal folds (plicae)** and atrophy or exfoliation of the ciliated columnar epithelium. This loss of cilia is a major cause of infertility and increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Clinical Pearls:** * **Appearance:** Classically described as a **"Retort-shaped"** swelling. * **Infertility Link:** Hydrosalpinx fluid is embryotoxic. For patients undergoing IVF, a hydrosalpinx should be removed (salpingectomy) or clipped prior to embryo transfer to improve implantation rates. * **Diagnosis:** On Ultrasound, it appears as a thin-walled, fluid-filled, elongated cystic structure with **"incomplete septa"** (cogwheel sign in acute phases, but flattened in chronic). * **Hydrops Tubae Profluens:** Intermittent discharge of clear fluid per vaginam followed by the disappearance of an adnexal mass (associated with tubal cancer but can occur in hydrosalpinx).

Question 1

Which of the following statements concerning fibroids is correct?

Accepted Answer

Growth factors (IGF-1, EGF) stimulate myoma to grow.

Answer

Use of GnRH analogues causes permanent reduction in size.

Answer

Pregnancy following myomectomy is about 80%.

Answer

Recurrence rate following myomectomy is about 30%.

Question 2

Which of the following procedures can be performed for all of the following conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Removal of displaced copper-T

Answer

An approach for tubal sterilization

Answer

Removal of fibroids or myxoma

Answer

Drainage of pelvic abscess

Question 3

Acute pain in fibroid is due to all except?

Accepted Answer

Hyaline degeneration

Answer

Torsion

Answer

Red degeneration

Answer

Sarcomatous change

Question 4

A 25-year-old woman has experienced discomfort during sexual intercourse for the past month. On physical examination, there are no lesions of the external genitalia. Pelvic examination shows a focal area of swelling on the left posterolateral inner labium that is very tender on palpation. A 3-cm cystic lesion filled with purulent exudate is excised. In which of the following structures is this lesion most likely to develop?

Accepted Answer

Bartholin gland

Answer

Gartner duct

Answer

Hair follicle

Answer

Urogenital diaphragm

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT true about herpes simplex genitalis?

Accepted Answer

May lead to malignancy

Answer

Caused due to herpes simplex virus

Answer

Risk of fetal infection is high at term

Answer

Treated by acyclovir

Question 6

What is the effect of GnRH agonists when given along with progestins on uterine fibroids?

Accepted Answer

Increase in growth of fibroid

Answer

Decrease in size of fibroid

Answer

No change in size of fibroid

Answer

Decrease size of only vascular fibroids

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?

Accepted Answer

Vaginal pH > 4.5

Answer

Presence of thin, white, homogenous vaginal discharge

Answer

Characteristic fishy odor of vaginal discharge, especially after adding 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH)

Answer

Microscopic identification of clue cells on wet mount examination

Question 8

Which of the following drugs used in the medical management of fibroids does NOT decrease their size?

Accepted Answer

NSAIDs

Answer

Mifepristone

Answer

GnRH agonists

Answer

GnRH antagonists

Question 9

Which of the following statements is false regarding hydrosalpinx in pelvic inflammatory disease?

Accepted Answer

The wall of the hydrosalpinx is thick and edematous

Answer

Often bilateral

Answer

Histology reveals flattening of the tubal plicae and exfoliation of the lining epithelium

Answer

None of the above

Question 10

All of the following can cause pyometra except?

Accepted Answer

Septate uterus

Answer

Cervical cancer

Answer

Uterine cancer

Answer

Genital TB

Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

Gynecological Disorders — MCQs

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