Gynecological Disorders — MCQs
On this page
Red degeneration of a fibroid is associated with which of the following conditions?
All of the following are indications for colposcopy EXCEPT:
A 19-year-old sexually active female presents with abdominal pain and nausea. Her last menstrual period began seven days ago. Physical examination reveals fever and lower abdominal pain. Pelvic examination shows a mucopurulent discharge, adnexal tenderness, and tenderness with cervical motion. A pregnancy test is negative, and her white blood cell count is elevated. Which of the following complications is associated with this disorder?
Which condition is characterized by a 'tobacco pouch' appearance?
A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of sudden, severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following infections can cause Asherman syndrome?
What is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What instrument is used to measure the urethrovesical angle?
Fitz-Hugh-Cuiz syndrome is characterized by which of the following conditions?
What is the normal pH of the cervix?
Gynecological Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Red degeneration of a fibroid is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Pregnancy (Correct Answer)
- B. Aseptic infection
- C. Thrombosis
- D. Leukocytosis
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Red degeneration** (also known as necrobiosis) is the most common form of degeneration seen in uterine fibroids during **pregnancy**, typically occurring in the second trimester. **Why Pregnancy is the Correct Answer:** The underlying mechanism is a **vascular accident**. During pregnancy, the fibroid undergoes rapid growth due to high estrogen levels. This growth outpaces its blood supply, leading to venous obstruction and congestion. This results in hemorrhage into the substance of the tumor and subsequent infarction. The characteristic "red" appearance is due to the diffusion of hemoglobin from hemolyzed red blood cells into the necrotic tissue. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Aseptic infection:** While red degeneration is a sterile (aseptic) necrotic process, it is not an "infection." It is an ischemic phenomenon. * **C. Thrombosis:** While venous thrombosis within the tumor's vessels is a *step* in the pathogenesis of red degeneration, the clinical condition most strongly and classically associated with this specific type of degeneration is pregnancy. * **D. Leukocytosis:** This is a clinical finding (raised white cell count) that may accompany the acute pain and fever of red degeneration, but it is a secondary sign, not the underlying associated condition. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Presentation:** Acute abdominal pain, localized tenderness over the fibroid, low-grade fever, and vomiting. * **Diagnosis:** Ultrasound is the first-line investigation; MRI shows a characteristic peripheral rim of high T1 signal. * **Management:** Always **conservative**. Treatment involves bed rest, hydration, and analgesics (NSAIDs). Surgery (myomectomy) is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of uncontrollable hemorrhage. * **Most common degeneration overall:** Hyaline degeneration (seen in non-pregnant states).
Question 232: All of the following are indications for colposcopy EXCEPT:
- A. Suspicious Papanicolaou smear
- B. Obvious mass seen during speculum examination
- C. Suspected invasive cervical carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Patient refusal of biopsy despite abnormal findings
Explanation: ### Explanation The primary goal of colposcopy is to identify the most abnormal area on the cervix for a directed biopsy in cases of **pre-invasive lesions** (CIN). **1. Why "Suspected invasive cervical carcinoma" is the correct answer:** Colposcopy is a diagnostic tool used to bridge the gap between an abnormal screening test (Pap smear) and a definitive histological diagnosis. If an **obvious clinical growth** or a **frankly invasive carcinoma** is suspected on visual inspection, colposcopy is unnecessary and may delay diagnosis. In such cases, the standard of care is a **direct punch biopsy** from the lesion. Colposcopy is contraindicated or redundant when the disease is already clinically evident. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Suspicious Papanicolaou smear:** This is the most common indication. Colposcopy is used to evaluate abnormal cytology (e.g., HSIL, LSIL, or persistent ASCUS) to locate the transformation zone and any acetowhite areas. * **B. Obvious mass seen during speculum examination:** While a direct biopsy is preferred for a suspicious mass, colposcopy can sometimes be used to map the extent of the lesion or evaluate the vaginal fornices if the diagnosis is not immediately clear. (Note: In many clinical algorithms, "B" is an indication to visualize the lesion better, but "C" is a definitive contraindication for *needing* the procedure). * **D. Patient refusal of biopsy:** This is a clinical scenario where colposcopy (with its magnification) can be used as a counseling tool to demonstrate the severity of the lesion to the patient, encouraging compliance with the necessary biopsy. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Reid’s Colposcopic Index:** Used to grade the severity of lesions based on color, margins, vessels, and iodine staining. * **Acetowhite Epithelium:** Occurs due to reversible coagulation of nuclear proteins; seen in CIN and HPV infections. * **Green Filter:** Used during colposcopy to highlight **abnormal vascular patterns** (punctations and mosaicism), which are hallmarks of high-grade lesions. * **Gold Standard:** The definitive diagnosis of cervical cancer is always **histopathology (biopsy)**, not colposcopy or cytology.
Question 233: A 19-year-old sexually active female presents with abdominal pain and nausea. Her last menstrual period began seven days ago. Physical examination reveals fever and lower abdominal pain. Pelvic examination shows a mucopurulent discharge, adnexal tenderness, and tenderness with cervical motion. A pregnancy test is negative, and her white blood cell count is elevated. Which of the following complications is associated with this disorder?
- A. Ascites
- B. Cervical carcinoma
- C. Exsanguination
- D. Infertility (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation **Diagnosis: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)** The clinical presentation of fever, lower abdominal pain, mucopurulent cervical discharge, and **cervical motion tenderness** (Chandelier sign) in a young, sexually active female is classic for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). The negative pregnancy test rules out ectopic pregnancy, and the elevated WBC count confirms an inflammatory process. #### Why Infertility is the Correct Answer: PID is an ascending infection (most commonly *Chlamydia trachomatis* or *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*) that leads to inflammation of the fallopian tubes (salpingitis). This results in **tubal scarring and occlusion**. * A single episode of PID carries an approximately 8–12% risk of **infertility**. * The risk increases exponentially with recurrent episodes (up to 50% after three episodes). * It also significantly increases the risk of future **ectopic pregnancies** and chronic pelvic pain. #### Why Other Options are Incorrect: * **A. Ascites:** While PID can cause localized exudate or a tubo-ovarian abscess, generalized ascites is not a standard complication. Ascites is more characteristic of ovarian malignancy or cirrhosis. * **B. Cervical Carcinoma:** This is associated with persistent High-Risk HPV infection (Types 16, 18), not the acute pyogenic organisms that cause PID. * **C. Exsanguination:** This refers to severe blood loss. While a ruptured ectopic pregnancy (a differential diagnosis) can cause exsanguination, PID itself is an infectious/inflammatory process, not a primary hemorrhagic one. #### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: * **Minimum Clinical Criteria for PID:** Cervical motion tenderness OR Uterine tenderness OR Adnexal tenderness. * **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome:** A complication of PID involving perihepatitis ("violin-string" adhesions between the liver capsule and parietal peritoneum). * **Most Common Organism:** *Chlamydia trachomatis* (often subclinical), though *N. gonorrhoeae* presents more acutely. * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Laparoscopy (shows tubal erythema and edema).
Question 234: Which condition is characterized by a 'tobacco pouch' appearance?
- A. Tuberculosis of fallopian tubes (Correct Answer)
- B. Endometriosis
- C. Ovarian carcinoma
- D. Fallopian tube carcinoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **'tobacco pouch' appearance** is a classic laparoscopic finding in **Genital Tuberculosis (TB)** affecting the fallopian tubes. This appearance occurs when the fimbrial ends of the fallopian tubes are everted and the ostium remains open, but the tube itself is constricted by surrounding fibrosis and adhesions. This results in a shrunken, puckered look resembling an old-fashioned drawstring tobacco pouch. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Tuberculosis of fallopian tubes (Correct):** In addition to the tobacco pouch appearance, TB is the most common cause of chronic Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) in developing countries. It often leads to infertility due to tubal blockage or "Lead pipe" rigidity of the tubes. * **B. Endometriosis:** Characterized by "powder-burn" lesions, "chocolate cysts" (endometriomas) in the ovaries, and a "frozen pelvis" due to extensive adhesions, but not the tobacco pouch deformity. * **C. Ovarian carcinoma:** Typically presents with solid-cystic adnexal masses, ascites, and elevated CA-125. It does not produce this specific tubal morphology. * **D. Fallopian tube carcinoma:** Classically associated with **Latzko’s triad** (intermittent profuse watery vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, and a pelvic mass). The tubes usually appear sausage-shaped (hydrops tubae profluens). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Beaded Tube:** Another classic radiological/pathological finding in Genital TB due to multiple strictures. * **Schlamm’s Sign:** Calcified lymph nodes or pelvic calcifications seen on X-ray in TB. * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Endometrial biopsy/aspiration for Histopathology and TB Culture (taken in the pre-menstrual phase). * **Most common site of Genital TB:** Fallopian tubes (90-100%), followed by the Endometrium (50-60%).
Question 235: A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of sudden, severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Torsion of a subserous fibroid
- B. Torsion of an ovarian cyst (Correct Answer)
- C. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
- D. Rupture of an ovarian cyst
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain associated with a palpable mass is a classic triad for **Adnexal (Ovarian) Torsion**. **1. Why Option B is Correct:** Ovarian torsion occurs when the ovary, often enlarged by a cyst (usually >5 cm), rotates around its pedicle (the infundibulopelvic and tubo-ovarian ligaments). This rotation compromises venous and lymphatic drainage, leading to congestion, edema, and eventually arterial ischemia. The presence of a **palpable mass** is a key distinguishing feature, as the cyst acts as the "lead point" for the torsion. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Torsion of a subserous fibroid):** While possible, it is significantly rarer than ovarian torsion. Fibroids are typically firm and often present with a history of menorrhagia or pressure symptoms rather than acute surgical emergencies. * **Option C (Rupture of ectopic pregnancy):** While this causes sudden severe pain, it is usually associated with a history of amenorrhea, positive pregnancy test (β-hCG), and signs of hemodynamic instability (shock). A large palpable mass is less common compared to ovarian torsion. * **Option D (Rupture of an ovarian cyst):** Rupture typically leads to sudden pain that may improve as the fluid disperses, but the **palpable mass usually disappears** or becomes less distinct upon rupture. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cyst to undergo torsion:** Dermoid cyst (Mature Cystic Teratoma) due to its heavy, sebaceous content. * **Investigation of Choice:** Color Doppler Ultrasound (shows "Whirlpool sign" and absent/decreased blood flow). * **Management:** Prompt laparoscopy. The current trend is **detorsion** (untwisting) and cystectomy, even if the ovary appears dusky, as many regain function. Salpingo-oophorectomy is reserved for necrotic/gangrenous tissue.
Question 236: Which of the following infections can cause Asherman syndrome?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Staphylococcus
- C. Tuberculosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Candida
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Asherman Syndrome** refers to the presence of intrauterine adhesions (synechiae) that lead to menstrual irregularities (amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea) and infertility. **Why Tuberculosis is the correct answer:** In the context of infections, **Genital Tuberculosis** is the most common cause of Asherman syndrome in developing countries like India. Chronic infection by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* leads to severe inflammation of the endometrium (endometritis), resulting in the destruction of the *stratum basalis* layer. This destruction prevents normal endometrial regeneration, leading to the formation of dense fibrous adhesions that obliterate the uterine cavity. This is often referred to as "Netter’s Syndrome" when the cavity is completely obliterated. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Chlamydia & Staphylococcus:** These are common causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). While they primarily cause salpingitis (tubal damage) and pelvic adhesions, they rarely cause the extensive destruction of the endometrial basal layer required to produce Asherman syndrome. * **Candida:** This is a fungal infection typically limited to the vagina (vulvovaginal candidiasis). It does not ascend to the endometrium or cause intrauterine scarring. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause overall:** Over-vigorous curettage (D&C) of a pregnant or recently pregnant uterus (post-abortal or postpartum). * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Hysteroscopy (both diagnostic and therapeutic). * **HSG Finding:** Characterized by "filling defects" or a "jagged/irregular" uterine contour. * **Treatment:** Hysteroscopic adhesiolysis followed by estrogen therapy to promote endometrial regrowth and insertion of an IUCD or Foley catheter to prevent re-adhesion.
Question 237: What is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
- A. Clinical triad of Pain, Fever, and Cervical tenderness
- B. Histologic confirmation of Endometritis
- C. Diagnostic Laparoscopy (Correct Answer)
- D. Ultrasound (USG)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Diagnostic Laparoscopy is the Gold Standard:** Diagnostic laparoscopy is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) because it allows for **direct visualization** of the pelvic organs. It can confirm the presence of tubal erythema, edema, and purulent exudate on the fimbrial ends or serosa. Furthermore, it allows for the collection of peritoneal fluid or tubal aspirates for culture, ensuring a definitive diagnosis and ruling out other surgical emergencies. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Clinical Triad):** While the clinical triad is essential for initiating empirical treatment (to prevent long-term sequelae), it is notoriously non-specific. Many patients with PID present with "silent" or subclinical symptoms, leading to a high rate of false positives and negatives. * **Option B (Histologic Endometritis):** Endometrial biopsy showing plasma cells is a highly specific criterion for PID, but it is not the "gold standard" because it does not visualize the extent of tubal or pelvic involvement. * **Option D (Ultrasound):** USG is often the first-line imaging modality used to rule out complications like Tubo-ovarian Abscess (TOA), but it lacks the sensitivity to detect mild to moderate salpingitis. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **CDC Minimum Clinical Criteria:** For empirical treatment, the patient must have lower abdominal/pelvic pain PLUS one of the following: Cervical Motion Tenderness (CMT), Uterine tenderness, or Adnexal tenderness. * **Most common organism:** *Chlamydia trachomatis* (most common overall) and *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*. * **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome:** A complication of PID involving peri-hepatitis, characterized by "violin-string" adhesions between the liver capsule and the parietal peritoneum. * **Treatment:** The goal is to prevent long-term complications like **ectopic pregnancy** and **infertility** (due to tubal scarring).
Question 238: What instrument is used to measure the urethrovesical angle?
- A. Amount of vaginal secretions
- B. Width of genital hiatus
- C. Gonococcal colony count
- D. Urethrovesical Angle (Correct Answer)
Explanation: The measurement of the **Urethrovesical Angle** is a critical clinical parameter in the evaluation of female urinary incontinence, specifically **Stress Urinary Incontinence (SUI)**. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** The **Posterior Urethrovesical Angle (PUVA)** is the angle formed between the base of the bladder and the proximal urethra. In a normal continent woman, this angle is typically less than **100°**. In cases of SUI, there is a loss of the posterior urethrovesical angle (it becomes obtuse or disappears), often due to the weakening of the pelvic floor muscles and endopelvic fascia. This is traditionally measured using **Lateral Cystourethrography** or **Ultrasonography** (transperineal or transvaginal). ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **A. Amount of vaginal secretions:** This is used to assess hormonal status (estrogen effect) or to diagnose infections (vaginitis), but it has no anatomical relevance to the urethrovesical junction. * **B. Width of genital hiatus:** This is a component of the **POP-Q (Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification)** system. While it measures pelvic floor relaxation, it does not specifically define the urethrovesical angle. * **C. Gonococcal colony count:** This is a microbiological parameter used to diagnose *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* infections and is unrelated to the mechanics of micturition. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Q-tip Test:** Used to measure **urethral hypermobility**. A cotton swab is inserted into the urethra; an angle of **>30°** from the horizontal upon straining (Valsalva) indicates hypermobility, often seen in SUI. * **Normal PUVA:** 90° to 100°. * **Type II SUI:** Characterized by the loss of the posterior urethrovesical angle and increased rotational descent of the urethra. * **Gold Standard Investigation for Incontinence:** Urodynamic studies (Cystometry).
Question 239: Fitz-Hugh-Cuiz syndrome is characterized by which of the following conditions?
- A. Perihepatitis (Correct Answer)
- B. Cholecystitis
- C. Tuboovarian abscess
- D. Gonococcal urethritis
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome (FHCS)** is a clinical manifestation of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) characterized by **Perihepatitis**. It involves inflammation of the liver capsule (Glisson’s capsule) and the adjacent parietal peritoneum, without involvement of the liver parenchyma itself. 1. **Why Perihepatitis is correct:** The condition occurs when bacteria (most commonly *Chlamydia trachomatis* or *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*) migrate from the pelvic cavity up the paracolic gutters to the subphrenic space. This leads to the formation of pathognomonic **"violin-string" adhesions** between the liver capsule and the anterior abdominal wall or diaphragm. Patients typically present with sharp, pleuritic right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Cholecystitis:** While FHCS mimics the RUQ pain of cholecystitis, the gallbladder and bile ducts are normal in FHCS. Murphy’s sign may be positive, but ultrasound will show no stones or gallbladder wall thickening. * **Tuboovarian abscess (TOA):** This is a complication of PID involving the adnexa, but it is not the defining feature of FHCS. * **Gonococcal urethritis:** While *N. gonorrhoeae* is a causative agent, urethritis refers to localized infection of the urethra, whereas FHCS specifically refers to the extrapelvic spread to the liver capsule. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Organism:** *Chlamydia trachomatis* (more frequent than *N. gonorrhoeae*). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Laparoscopy (visualizing "violin-string" adhesions). * **Liver Function Tests (LFTs):** Usually **normal**, as the liver parenchyma is not affected (helps differentiate from hepatitis). * **Management:** Antibiotics targeting PID (Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline); laparolysis is rarely required.
Question 240: What is the normal pH of the cervix?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 8 (Correct Answer)
- D. 11
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C (8)**. The vaginal and cervical environments maintain distinct pH levels to serve different physiological functions. While the **vagina** is acidic (pH 3.8–4.5) due to the production of lactic acid by *Lactobacillus* species, the **cervix** (specifically the endocervical canal) is **alkaline**, typically ranging from **7.0 to 8.5**. **Why Option C is correct:** The alkaline nature of cervical mucus (pH ~8) is essential for reproductive function. It neutralizes the acidity of the vagina during the periovulatory period, protecting sperm from the harsh acidic environment and facilitating their transport into the uterus. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Options A & B (2 and 3):** These represent highly acidic environments. A pH of 2 is characteristic of gastric acid. A pH of 3 is more acidic than even the normal healthy vagina. Such acidity would be lethal to sperm. * **Option D (11):** This represents a strongly basic/caustic environment. Biological tissues and secretions rarely reach this level of alkalinity, which would cause chemical damage to the mucosa. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Vaginal pH:** Normal is 3.8–4.5. It increases (>4.5) in conditions like Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomoniasis, but remains normal in Candidiasis. 2. **Sperm Survival:** Sperm are highly sensitive to pH; they become immobile at a pH below 6.0. The alkaline cervical mucus is the primary "gateway" for survival. 3. **Fern Test:** The high concentration of sodium chloride and the alkaline nature of cervical mucus under estrogen influence lead to the characteristic "ferning" pattern seen on microscopy, indicating ovulation. 4. **Amniotic Fluid:** Also alkaline (pH 7.0–7.5), which is the basis for the Nitrazine paper test used to diagnose Rupture of Membranes (ROM).
Practice by Chapter
Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
Practice Questions
Endometriosis
Practice Questions
Adenomyosis
Practice Questions
Uterine Fibroids
Practice Questions
Ovarian Cysts
Practice Questions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Practice Questions
Vulvovaginitis
Practice Questions
Pelvic Organ Prolapse
Practice Questions
Vulvar Disorders
Practice Questions
Benign Breast Diseases
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free