Gynecological Disorders — MCQs
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A 19-year-old student presents to the university health service with lower abdominal pain and a painful swollen right knee, denying any trauma to the knee. Pelvic examination is exquisitely painful and reveals an ill-defined thickening in the right and left adnexae, with a vaginal discharge noted. The patient is febrile (38.7°C/103°F). Examination of her right knee reveals an enlarged, tender, and warm joint. The WBC count is 18,500/mL (normal = 4,000 to 11,000/mL). If left untreated, which of the following would be the most likely complication in this patient?
Which drug is most commonly used in the treatment of endometriosis?
Intermediate cell predominance on a vaginal cytology is seen in:
Which of the following statements about follicular cysts of the ovary is MOST false?
Which tumor type is associated with an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma?
The typical histological finding in endometriotic lesions is:
Which of the following constitutes the classic triad of Meigs' syndrome?
A 13-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with a complaint of severe, deep pelvic discomfort. Physical examination reveals that the patient has an intact hymen. Incision of the hymen reveals hematocolpos. Which of the following conditions is associated with hematocolpos?
Hysteroscopic excision is indicated for which of the following conditions?
What is the standard surgical treatment for uterine polyps?
Gynecological Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: A 19-year-old student presents to the university health service with lower abdominal pain and a painful swollen right knee, denying any trauma to the knee. Pelvic examination is exquisitely painful and reveals an ill-defined thickening in the right and left adnexae, with a vaginal discharge noted. The patient is febrile (38.7°C/103°F). Examination of her right knee reveals an enlarged, tender, and warm joint. The WBC count is 18,500/mL (normal = 4,000 to 11,000/mL). If left untreated, which of the following would be the most likely complication in this patient?
- A. Tubo-ovarian abscess (Correct Answer)
- B. Bronchopneumonia
- C. Lung abscess
- D. Meningitis
Explanation: ***Tubo-ovarian abscess*** - The patient's symptoms of **fever**, **lower abdominal pain**, **vaginal discharge**, and **bilateral adnexal tenderness with thickening** are highly suggestive of **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**. - The **painful swollen knee without trauma** suggests **reactive arthritis** or **Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome**, both associated with PID (commonly due to *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* or *Chlamydia trachomatis*). - If left untreated, PID can progress to a **tubo-ovarian abscess**, the most serious acute complication involving purulent infection of the fallopian tubes and ovaries, which may require surgical intervention. *Bronchopneumonia* - This is an **acute inflammation of the bronchioles and alveoli**, typically caused by bacterial or viral infections. - There are no respiratory symptoms presented in the patient, such as cough, dyspnea, or abnormal lung sounds. - This is not a recognized complication of PID. *Lung abscess* - This is a **necrotic infection of the lung parenchyma**, typically a complication of bacterial pneumonia or aspiration. - The patient lacks respiratory symptoms, and the clinical picture strongly points towards a pelvic and joint infection rather than a lung pathology. - This is not a complication of untreated PID. *Meningitis* - Meningitis is an **inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord**, characterized by headache, stiff neck, and fever. - While *N. gonorrhoeae* can rarely cause disseminated infection with meningitis, this is extremely uncommon, and there are no neurological signs or meningeal irritation present in this patient. - The most likely complication remains tubo-ovarian abscess.
Question 1202: Which drug is most commonly used in the treatment of endometriosis?
- A. GnRH analogues
- B. MPA
- C. Oral contraceptive pills (Correct Answer)
- D. Danazol
Explanation: ***Oral contraceptive pills*** - **Combined oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** are the **most commonly used first-line treatment** for endometriosis. - They suppress ovulation and menstrual cycles, reducing pain by decreasing menstrual flow and endometrial proliferation. - **Advantages**: Well-tolerated, cost-effective, suitable for long-term management, and recommended as first-line therapy by **ESHRE and ACOG guidelines**. - Particularly effective for **mild-to-moderate endometriosis** and dysmenorrhea. *GnRH analogues* - **GnRH analogues** induce a hypoestrogenic state, creating a temporary medical menopause. - While highly effective at reducing endometrial implants, they are typically **reserved for moderate-to-severe disease** or when first-line treatments fail. - Limited by significant side effects (hot flashes, bone density loss) and higher cost. *MPA* - **Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)** can suppress endometrial growth through decidualization and atrophy. - Used as a **second-line option** but less commonly prescribed than OCPs for initial management. *Danazol* - **Danazol** is an attenuated androgen that creates pseudo-menopause. - Rarely used today due to significant **androgenic side effects** (hirsutism, voice deepening, weight gain).
Question 1203: Intermediate cell predominance on a vaginal cytology is seen in:
- A. Pregnancy (Correct Answer)
- B. Postovulatory phase
- C. Premenstrual phase
- D. Menstruation
Explanation: ***Pregnancy*** - During **pregnancy**, high levels of **progesterone** cause a shift towards **intermediate cells** in vaginal cytology due to their support of endometrial proliferation and maintenance of the uterine lining. - This hormonal environment suppresses the maturation of squamous cells to superficial cells, favoring the intermediate cell layer. *Postovulatory phase* - The **postovulatory phase** is characterized by a rise in **progesterone**, which does lead to an increase in intermediate cells. - However, the predominance is typically not as pronounced as in pregnancy, which maintains consistently high progesterone levels for a longer duration. *Premenstrual phase* - The **premenstrual phase** also sees elevated **progesterone** and a decline in estrogen, resulting in an increase in intermediate cells. - Yet, this increase is cyclical and usually not as sustained or diagnostically significant as the intermediate cell predominance found throughout pregnancy. *Menstruation* - During **menstruation**, the shedding of the uterine lining leads to a cytological smear rich in **endometrial cells**, **red blood cells**, and inflammatory cells. - Intermediate cells may be present, but they do not typically predominate; the hallmark is the presence of blood and debris associated with tissue breakdown.
Question 1204: Which of the following statements about follicular cysts of the ovary is MOST false?
- A. Most-common in young, menstruating women
- B. Functional cyst of ovary
- C. Usually resolve spontaneously within 1-3 menstrual cycles
- D. Independent of gonadotropins for growth (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Independent of gonadotropins for growth*** - Follicular cysts are **dependent on gonadotropins** (FSH and LH) for their formation and continued growth. - These cysts arise from the **hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis** when a dominant follicle fails to rupture despite gonadotropin stimulation. - This statement is **FALSE** because follicular development and cyst formation require gonadotropin signaling. *Functional cyst of ovary* - Follicular cysts are **functional (physiological) cysts**, meaning they develop as part of the normal menstrual cycle. - They occur when the dominant follicle fails to ovulate or regress, continuing to accumulate fluid. - These are benign and self-limiting in most cases. *Most-common in young, menstruating women* - Follicular cysts are indeed **most common in reproductive-aged women** with regular menstrual cycles. - They are directly linked to the ovulation process and are rare in prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women. *Usually resolve spontaneously within 1-3 menstrual cycles* - Most follicular cysts are **self-limiting** and resolve without intervention within 1-3 menstrual cycles. - They typically do not require treatment unless they are large (>5 cm), symptomatic, or persist beyond 3 cycles.
Question 1205: Which tumor type is associated with an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma?
- A. Sertoli Leydig cell
- B. Immature teratoma
- C. Gonadoblastoma tumor
- D. Granulosa theca cell (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Granulosa theca cell*** - Granulosa-theca cell tumors are associated with an increased risk of **endometrial carcinoma** due to their potential to cause **excess estrogen production**. - The **estrogen stimulation** of the endometrium can lead to hyperplasia and subsequently to carcinoma. *Immature teratoma* - Immature teratomas are primarily germ cell tumors and are not typically associated with **endometrial cancer risk**. - Their malignant potential is primarily linked to **germ cell neoplasia** rather than estrogen exposure. *Sertoli Leydig cell* - Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors cause **androgen production** [1], which may have effects on the endometrium but do not significantly raise endometrial carcinoma risk. - These tumors are more associated with **virilization** [1] rather than estrogen-related pathways. *Gonadoblastoma tumor* - Gonadoblastomas are rare and typically found in individuals with **disorders of sexual development**; they are not commonly linked to endometrial cancer. - Their risk is more associated with **germ cell tumor presentation**, without significant impact on endometrial tissue. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1037-1038.
Question 1206: The typical histological finding in endometriotic lesions is:
- A. Smooth muscle bundles with calcification
- B. Endometrial glands and stroma (Correct Answer)
- C. Squamous epithelium with keratin pearls
- D. Granulomatous inflammation with giant cells
Explanation: ***Endometrial glands and stroma*** - Endometriosis is defined by the presence of **ectopic endometrial tissue**, which histologically includes both **endometrial glands** and **stroma** outside the uterine cavity. - These aberrant tissues respond to **hormonal fluctuations** just like normal endometrium, leading to cyclical bleeding and inflammation in the ectopic sites. *Squamous epithelium with keratin pearls* - This histological pattern is characteristic of **squamous cell carcinoma**, particularly well-differentiated types, and is not found in endometriotic lesions. - Endometriotic lesions are derived from uterine lining cells, which are **columnar glandular epithelium**, not squamous epithelium. *Smooth muscle bundles with calcification* - This description is more consistent with findings in **uterine leiomyomas** (fibroids), which are benign smooth muscle tumors, sometimes undergoing degenerative changes like calcification. - Endometriosis is primarily glandular and stromal tissue, not smooth muscle. *Granulomatous inflammation with giant cells* - This histological picture indicates a **granulomatous process**, often seen in conditions like **tuberculosis**, sarcoidosis, or foreign body reactions. - While inflammation occurs in endometriosis, it is typically chronic, non-specific inflammation caused by cyclical bleeding, not a granulomatous response with giant cells.
Question 1207: Which of the following constitutes the classic triad of Meigs' syndrome?
- A. Hydrothorax alone
- B. Ascites alone
- C. Benign ovarian fibroma
- D. Benign ovarian fibroma, ascites, and hydrothorax (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Benign ovarian fibroma, ascites, and hydrothorax*** - **Meigs' syndrome** is defined by the classical triad of a **benign ovarian fibroma** (or fibroma-like tumor such as thecoma or granulosa cell tumor), **ascites** (fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity), and **hydrothorax** (pleural effusion, usually right-sided) - All three components must be present for the diagnosis of Meigs' syndrome - The hallmark feature is complete resolution of ascites and hydrothorax after surgical removal of the ovarian tumor - This distinguishes it from malignant processes or other causes of effusions *Benign ovarian fibroma* - A benign ovarian fibroma alone is insufficient to diagnose Meigs' syndrome - The syndrome requires the presence of both ascites and hydrothorax in addition to the tumor - Many ovarian fibromas exist without associated fluid collections *Ascites alone* - Ascites is only one component of the triad and cannot diagnose Meigs' syndrome by itself - Numerous conditions cause ascites including cirrhosis, malignancy, heart failure, and nephrotic syndrome - The specific combination with ovarian fibroma and hydrothorax is what defines Meigs' syndrome *Hydrothorax alone* - Hydrothorax (pleural effusion) alone is insufficient for diagnosis - Although typically right-sided in Meigs' syndrome, isolated pleural effusion has many other causes - Must be accompanied by both ovarian fibroma and ascites to constitute Meigs' syndrome
Question 1208: A 13-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with a complaint of severe, deep pelvic discomfort. Physical examination reveals that the patient has an intact hymen. Incision of the hymen reveals hematocolpos. Which of the following conditions is associated with hematocolpos?
- A. Cyst of Bartholin gland
- B. Bleeding from an ectopic pregnancy
- C. Imperforate hymen (Correct Answer)
- D. Indirect inguinal hernia with cremasteric arterial bleeding
Explanation: ***Imperforate hymen*** - An **imperforate hymen** completely blocks the vaginal opening, leading to the accumulation of menstrual blood within the vagina (hematocolpos) and potentially the uterus (hematometra) or fallopian tubes (hematosalpinx). - The accumulated blood causes **pelvic discomfort** and can present as a pelvic mass, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of severe, deep pelvic discomfort. *Cyst of Bartholin gland* - A **Bartholin gland cyst** presents as a unilateral, palpable mass at the posterior-lateral aspect of the introitus, often causing discomfort or dyspareunia, but it does not cause hematocolpos. - While it can cause discomfort, it is not associated with the accumulation of menstrual blood or an intact hymen causing outflow obstruction. *Bleeding from an ectopic pregnancy* - **Ectopic pregnancy** occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, causing abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. - It would not be associated with an intact hymen or hematocolpos, as the bleeding originates from within the reproductive tract, typically the fallopian tube. *Indirect inguinal hernia with cremasteric arterial bleeding* - An **indirect inguinal hernia** involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal, which can cause pain but is unrelated to the female reproductive tract or menstrual blood accumulation. - **Cremasteric arterial bleeding** in the context of a hernia is a rare surgical emergency and has no association with an intact hymen or hematocolpos.
Question 1209: Hysteroscopic excision is indicated for which of the following conditions?
- A. Subserous fibroid
- B. Submucous fibroid (Correct Answer)
- C. Uterine fundus fibroid
- D. Endometrial polyp
Explanation: ***Submucous fibroid*** - **Hysteroscopic myomectomy** is the **gold standard treatment** for submucous fibroids that protrude into the uterine cavity. - Type 0 and Type I submucous fibroids are **ideal candidates** for hysteroscopic excision, as they are directly accessible through the cervix. - This **minimally invasive approach** preserves the uterus and fertility while effectively removing the fibroid. - Submucous fibroids commonly cause **heavy menstrual bleeding** and require definitive excision for symptom relief. *Subserous fibroid* - Located on the **outer surface of the uterus**, projecting into the peritoneal cavity. - Not accessible via hysteroscopy; requires **laparoscopy or laparotomy** for removal. - The hysteroscope cannot reach these fibroids as they are outside the uterine cavity. *Uterine fundus fibroid* - These are typically **intramural fibroids** embedded within the uterine muscle wall. - Not suitable for hysteroscopic excision unless they have a significant submucous component. - Would require **laparoscopic or open myomectomy** depending on size and location. *Endometrial polyp* - **Hysteroscopic polypectomy** is indeed the standard treatment for endometrial polyps. - While this is a valid indication for hysteroscopy, endometrial polyps are typically **smaller, benign lesions** that are easier to remove. - In the context of this question, **submucous fibroid** is the more specific answer as it represents a more complex pathology where hysteroscopic excision is both technically demanding and clinically significant. - Both are correct indications, but submucous fibroid is the **primary surgical indication** that best demonstrates the therapeutic value of hysteroscopic excision for larger structural abnormalities.
Question 1210: What is the standard surgical treatment for uterine polyps?
- A. Morcellation removal
- B. Hysteroscopic removal (Correct Answer)
- C. Curettage removal
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Hysteroscopic removal*** - This is the **gold standard** for uterine polyp removal, as it allows for direct visualization of the uterine cavity and precise resection. - It minimizes the risk of **incomplete removal** and is preferred for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. *Curettage removal* - **Curettage** is less precise and may miss polyps, especially smaller ones, as it is a blind procedure. - While it can remove some polyps, it has a **higher recurrence rate** compared to hysteroscopic methods. *Morcellement removal* - **Morcellation** is a technique used to cut tissue into smaller pieces for removal, often associated with larger masses like fibroids. - It is not typically the primary method for routine polyp removal and carries risks such as **tissue scattering**, which can be problematic if malignancy is suspected. *All of the options* - While other methods can sometimes be used, **hysteroscopic removal** is considered the standard and most effective approach due to its precision and direct visualization, making "all of the options" an incorrect choice for the *standard* treatment. - The other techniques are less optimal or used in specific, less common circumstances for polyp removal.
Practice by Chapter
Abnormal Uterine Bleeding
Practice Questions
Endometriosis
Practice Questions
Adenomyosis
Practice Questions
Uterine Fibroids
Practice Questions
Ovarian Cysts
Practice Questions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Practice Questions
Vulvovaginitis
Practice Questions
Pelvic Organ Prolapse
Practice Questions
Vulvar Disorders
Practice Questions
Benign Breast Diseases
Practice Questions
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