Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 781: Which ovarian tumor is likely to involve the opposite ovary by metastasis?

A. Granulosa cell tumor
B. Gynandroblastoma
C. Endodermal tumor
D. Dysgerminoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Dysgerminoma** - **Dysgerminomas** are ovarian germ cell tumors that have a strong propensity for **lymphatic spread** and can frequently involve the contralateral ovary via micrometastases. - They are typically **highly radiosensitive** and respond well to chemotherapy, even in advanced stages with bilateral involvement. *Granulosa cell tumor* - **Granulosa cell tumors** are sex cord-stromal tumors known for producing **estrogen**, leading to endometrial hyperplasia or postmenopausal bleeding. - While they can recur, bilateral involvement is uncommon, and metastasis usually occurs later in the disease course, primarily to nearby structures. *Endodermal tumor* - **Endodermal sinus tumors** (yolk sac tumors) are aggressive germ cell tumors characterized by elevated **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**. - These tumors typically spread rapidly via peritoneal dissemination and lymphatics but are less likely to involve the contralateral ovary directly via metastasis compared to dysgerminomas. *Gynandroblastoma* - **Gynandroblastomas** are very rare sex cord-stromal tumors that contain features of both granulosa cell and Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors. - They are generally considered **low-grade malignancies** and do not typically metastasize to the opposite ovary, with local spread being more common if at all.

Question 782: A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which lymph node group would be the first involved in metastatic spread of this disease beyond the cervix and uterus?

A. Para-aortic nodes
B. External iliac node
C. Common iliac nodes
D. Paracervical or parametrial nodes (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Paracervical or parametrial nodes*** - Carcinoma of the **cervix** typically spreads initially to the **paracervical** and **parametrial nodes**, which are the first lymphatic drainage sites. - These nodes are located **adjacent to the cervix** and within the **parametrium**, representing the primary regional lymph node stations. - Early involvement of these nodes is crucial for **staging** and determining treatment approach. *Para-aortic nodes* - The para-aortic nodes are involved in **advanced disease** representing tertiary lymphatic spread. - Metastasis to these nodes indicates **spread beyond regional nodes** and significantly impacts prognosis and treatment planning. - They become involved **after** the pelvic lymph nodes (paracervical, parametrial, and iliac nodes) have been compromised. *External iliac nodes* - The external iliac nodes are part of the **primary pelvic lymphatic drainage** but are typically involved **after** the immediate paracervical and parametrial nodes. - They represent the **next step in regional spread** once the closest nodes are affected. - These are still considered regional nodes important for staging purposes. *Common iliac nodes* - The common iliac nodes are **secondary lymphatic drainage sites** for cervical cancer, receiving lymph from the external and internal iliac nodes. - Involvement of these nodes indicates **more advanced regional disease** and suggests spread has progressed through the primary pelvic nodes. - They are located at the **bifurcation of the aorta** and represent a higher level of nodal involvement.

Question 783: A 20-year-old female presents with a 6x6x6 cm ovarian mass, ultrasonography of which reveals solid structures. Her serum biomarkers, including AFP, β-hCG, and CA 125, are normal, but serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Dysgerminoma (Correct Answer)
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Malignant teratoma
D. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

Explanation: ***Dysgerminoma*** - Dysgerminomas are **germ cell tumors** that characteristically present as **solid ovarian masses** in young women, which matches this presentation. - They typically have **normal AFP and β-hCG levels**, as seen in this patient. - The classic tumor marker for dysgerminoma is **elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)**, not alkaline phosphatase. - Despite the atypical elevated alkaline phosphatase, the solid mass with normal germ cell markers makes dysgerminoma the most likely diagnosis among the given options. *Endodermal sinus tumor* - This germ cell tumor is characterized by significantly **elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**, which is normal in this patient. - While it can present as a solid ovarian mass, the **normal AFP level essentially rules out** this diagnosis. *Malignant teratoma* - Malignant (immature) teratomas typically show **elevated AFP** and sometimes **β-hCG**, neither of which are elevated here. - The normal tumor markers make this diagnosis unlikely. *Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma* - Mucinous tumors are **epithelial ovarian cancers** that typically present as **cystic or multiloculated masses**, not predominantly solid structures. - They are associated with elevated **CA 125** (which is normal here) and sometimes CA 19-9. - The solid appearance on ultrasound argues strongly against this diagnosis.

Question 784: A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for suspected stage Ib cancer cervix. Histopathology reveals cancer extension to the lower part of the uterine body with positive surgical margins. What is the next step of management?

A. Chemoradiation (Correct Answer)
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Follow-up

Explanation: ***Correct Option: Chemoradiation*** - **Positive surgical margins** after radical hysterectomy represent a **high-risk feature** requiring adjuvant concurrent chemoradiation. - According to **GOG 109 trial** and **NCCN/ESGO guidelines**, high-risk features (positive surgical margins, parametrial involvement, or positive pelvic lymph nodes) mandate **concurrent chemoradiation** (external beam radiotherapy + cisplatin-based chemotherapy). - **Cisplatin-based chemoradiation** improves local control and overall survival compared to radiotherapy alone in high-risk post-operative cervical cancer. - The combination provides both local control (radiation) and systemic treatment (chemotherapy) to address micrometastatic disease. *Incorrect Option: Radiotherapy* - Radiotherapy alone is used for **intermediate-risk features** (large tumor size >4 cm, deep stromal invasion, lymphovascular space invasion) without positive margins or nodal involvement. - In this case with **positive surgical margins**, radiotherapy alone is insufficient and would miss the survival benefit provided by concurrent chemotherapy. - The presence of positive margins elevates this to high-risk category requiring combined modality treatment. *Incorrect Option: Chemotherapy* - Chemotherapy alone (without radiation) is not standard adjuvant treatment after radical hysterectomy. - Systemic chemotherapy as a single modality is reserved for recurrent or metastatic disease. - The standard in high-risk post-operative cases is **concurrent** chemoradiation, not sequential therapy. *Incorrect Option: Follow-up* - Follow-up alone is contraindicated with **positive surgical margins**, which indicate residual microscopic disease. - Without adjuvant treatment, the risk of local recurrence and distant metastasis is unacceptably high. - Active intervention with chemoradiation is essential to improve disease-free and overall survival.

Question 785: Ball's operation is indicated for which of the following conditions?

A. Cervical cancer (Ca. Cx)
B. Ovarian cancer (Ca. Ovary)
C. Fallopian tube cancer (Ca. Fallopian tube)
D. Vulvar cancer (Ca. Vulva) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Vulvar cancer (Ca. Vulva)*** - **Ball's operation** (radical vulvectomy) is a surgical procedure specifically designed for the treatment of **vulvar cancer**. - It involves the **wide excision of the vulva** along with lymphadenectomy to remove cancerous tissue and prevent spread. *Cervical cancer (Ca. Cx)* - Treatment for cervical cancer typically involves procedures like **cone biopsy**, **hysterectomy**, or **radical trachelectomy**, often combined with radiation and chemotherapy. - Ball's operation is not indicated for cervical cancer, as it targets the external genitalia. *Ovarian cancer (Ca. Ovary)* - Ovarian cancer is primarily managed through **surgical debulking**, which includes **hysterectomy**, **bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy**, and omentectomy. - This type of cancer requires intra-abdominal surgery, distinct from procedures for external genital cancers. *Fallopian tube cancer (Ca. Fallopian tube)* - Treatment for fallopian tube cancer also involves intra-abdominal surgery, typically **salpingectomy** (removal of the fallopian tube) and often **hysterectomy** and **oophorectomy**. - Ball's operation is not relevant for this internal gynecologic malignancy.

Question 786: Which type of cancer is most commonly associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?

A. Ovarian carcinoma
B. Endometrial carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Cervical carcinoma
D. Adrenal carcinoma

Explanation: ***Endometrial carcinoma*** - PCOS is associated with **chronic anovulation**, leading to unopposed **estrogen exposure** which causes continuous endometrial proliferation and increased risk of **endometrial hyperplasia** and **carcinoma**. - The elevated **androgen levels** in PCOS can be aromatized to estrogens, further contributing to endometrial stimulation. *Ovarian carcinoma* - While PCOS involves the ovaries, it is not consistently linked to an increased risk of **ovarian cancer**. - Most ovarian cancers arise from **epithelial cells**, and the specific mechanisms related to PCOS do not directly promote their development. *Cervical carcinoma* - **Cervical cancer** is primarily caused by persistent infection with **high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV)**. - There is no strong direct association between PCOS and an increased risk of cervical carcinoma. *Adrenal carcinoma* - **Adrenal carcinoma** is a rare and aggressive cancer of the adrenal glands. - Although PCOS can involve some adrenal androgen excess, it is not considered a risk factor for adrenal cancer.

Question 787: What is the stage of ovarian cancer with liver parenchymal metastasis and bilateral ovarian mass?

A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Stage IV*** - **Liver parenchymal metastasis** is considered **distant metastasis (M1)**, automatically classifying ovarian cancer as **Stage IVB** according to FIGO staging. - While **bilateral ovarian masses** might be present in earlier stages, the presence of **parenchymal liver or splenic metastasis** defines Stage IV disease. - Liver capsule surface involvement alone (without parenchymal invasion) would be Stage III as peritoneal spread. *Stage I* - Stage I ovarian cancer is confined to **one or both ovaries/fallopian tubes** only. - No evidence of tumor outside the ovaries, no peritoneal disease, and no nodal involvement. *Stage II* - Stage II involves tumor growth **beyond the ovaries/fallopian tubes** but confined to the **pelvis**. - No distant metastasis or lymph node involvement. *Stage III* - Stage III involves cancer spread **outside the pelvis** to the peritoneum or **retroperitoneal lymph nodes**. - Includes **peritoneal implants** (including liver/spleen capsule surface), but specifically excludes parenchymal liver or spleen metastasis.

Question 788: Ca vulva of the anterior part will spread primarily to which of the following lymph nodes?

A. Inguinal (Correct Answer)
B. Obturator
C. Femoral
D. Para-aortic

Explanation: ***Inguinal*** - Carcinoma of the vulva, particularly the anterior part, primarily metastasizes to the **inguinal lymph nodes** (both superficial and deep inguinal nodes). - The lymphatic drainage pathway: vulva → superficial inguinal nodes → deep inguinal nodes → external iliac nodes. - **Superficial inguinal nodes** lie above the inguinal ligament and are the first-line drainage. - The anterior vulva (especially the clitoris) may have bilateral drainage, making sentinel lymph node mapping important. *Obturator* - **Obturator lymph nodes** are pelvic nodes that primarily drain the cervix, bladder, and medial thigh. - These nodes are NOT part of the primary drainage pathway for vulvar cancer. - Involvement would indicate advanced disease with secondary pelvic spread. *Femoral* - The **deep inguinal (femoral) nodes** are part of the inguinal lymphatic chain and lie along the femoral vessels medial to the femoral vein. - While these nodes DO receive vulvar drainage, they are considered part of the broader "inguinal node group." - The term **"inguinal"** is preferred in clinical practice as it encompasses both superficial and deep (femoral) components of the primary drainage pathway. *Para-aortic* - **Para-aortic lymph nodes** drain the ovaries, uterine fundus, kidneys, and testis. - These nodes are NOT involved in primary vulvar drainage. - Para-aortic involvement in vulvar cancer indicates distant metastasis and advanced stage disease.

Question 789: Which of the following statements about carcinoma of the vulva is correct?

A. Commonly seen after menopause and associated with viral predisposition. (Correct Answer)
B. Spreads to iliac nodes.
C. Spreads to superficial inguinal nodes and is treated with radiotherapy.
D. All of the options.

Explanation: ***Commonly seen after menopause and associated with viral predisposition.*** - **Vulvar carcinoma** is primarily a disease of **postmenopausal women**, with the average age at diagnosis being in the 60s. - A significant subset of vulvar squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs), particularly in younger women, is associated with **human papillomavirus (HPV) infection**, especially types 16 and 18. *Spreads to iliac nodes.* - The initial lymphatic spread of vulvar carcinoma is typically to the **superficial inguinal lymph nodes**, then to the deep inguinal nodes, and finally to the **femoral lymph nodes**. - Spread to the **iliac nodes** usually occurs at a later stage or in cases where the deep inguinal and femoral nodes are already involved. *Spreads to superficial inguinal nodes and is treated with radiotherapy.* - While vulvar carcinoma does primarily spread to the **superficial inguinal nodes**, **surgical excision** (radical vulvectomy and lymphadenectomy) is the primary treatment modality for invasive disease. - **Radiotherapy** is often used as adjuvant treatment for patients with positive surgical margins, advanced disease, or nodal involvement, but it is not the sole or primary treatment. *All of the options.* - This option is incorrect because the statement regarding iliac node spread as the initial pathway and radiotherapy as the primary treatment are not entirely accurate in all contexts of vulvar carcinoma management.

Question 790: Prognosis of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease depends on all, except:

A. Age
B. Number of living children (Correct Answer)
C. Previous HCG titre
D. Site of metastases

Explanation: ***Number of living children*** - The number of living children is **not included** in the prognostic scoring systems for Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD), such as the **FIGO scoring system**. - This is a personal/social factor unrelated to disease characteristics or tumor burden. - Therefore, it does **not** affect the prognosis of GTD. *Age* - **Age ≥40 years** is assigned 1 point in the FIGO prognostic scoring system. - Advanced maternal age is associated with **worse prognosis** in GTD. - This is a well-established prognostic factor. *Previous HCG titre* - The **pre-treatment serum hCG level** is a critical prognostic factor in the FIGO scoring system. - hCG levels are scored: <10³ (0 points), 10³-10⁴ (1 point), 10⁴-10⁵ (2 points), >10⁵ (4 points). - Higher initial hCG levels indicate greater **tumor burden** and correlate with worse prognosis. *Site of metastases* - The **anatomic location of metastases** is a key prognostic factor in FIGO scoring. - Lung/vaginal metastases score lower (1-2 points) while spleen/kidney and GI/liver/brain metastases score higher (2-4 points). - Brain and liver metastases confer the **worst prognosis**.

Practice by Chapter

Cervical Cancer

Practice Questions

Endometrial Cancer

Practice Questions

Ovarian Cancer

Practice Questions

Vulvar and Vaginal Cancer

Practice Questions

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

Practice Questions

Screening for Gynecologic Cancers

Practice Questions

Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery

Practice Questions

Radiation Therapy in Gynecologic Malignancies

Practice Questions

Chemotherapy in Gynecologic Oncology

Practice Questions

Palliative Care in Gynecologic Oncology

Practice Questions

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