Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 751: Extramammary Paget's disease most commonly affects which anatomical site?

A. Vulva (Correct Answer)
B. Vagina
C. Cervix
D. Uterus

Explanation: **Vulva** - **Extramammary Paget's disease (EMPD)** primarily occurs in areas rich in **apocrine glands**. - The **vulva** is the most common site for EMPD, followed by the perianal region and groin. *Vagina* - The vagina is lined by **squamous epithelium** and lacks the abundance of apocrine glands typically associated with EMPD. - While extremely rare, primary vaginal Paget's disease is uncharacteristic compared to vulvar involvement. *Cervix* - The cervix is composed of **squamous and glandular epithelium** but is not a typical site for EMPD. - Cervical lesions are more commonly associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. *Uterus* - The uterus is an internal organ lined by **endometrial tissue** and is not a site where EMPD typically develops. - Uterine pathologies usually involve endometrial or myometrial cells, unrelated to Paget's disease.

Question 752: In which of the following conditions is therapeutic conization MOST specifically indicated as the standard treatment approach?

A. Severe Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN III) requiring excision
B. Microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix (Correct Answer)
C. Benign cervical metaplasia
D. High-grade cervical dysplasia with unsatisfactory colposcopy

Explanation: ***Microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix*** - **Therapeutic conization** is the definitive standard treatment for **microinvasive carcinoma (Stage IA1)**, serving as both diagnostic and potentially curative management. - It allows precise assessment of depth of invasion, lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI), and margin status while preserving fertility. - This is the **most specifically indicated** condition where conization is the standard therapeutic approach, not just diagnostic. *Severe Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN III) requiring excision* - CIN III can be treated with multiple excisional methods including **LEEP, cold knife conization, or laser ablation**. - Conization is one option among several, not the most specifically indicated single approach. *Benign cervical metaplasia* - **Benign cervical metaplasia** is a normal physiological process of squamous epithelium replacing columnar epithelium. - No treatment is required; surgical intervention would be inappropriate and cause unnecessary harm. *High-grade cervical dysplasia with unsatisfactory colposcopy* - Unsatisfactory colposcopy (transformation zone not fully visible) with high-grade dysplasia requires diagnostic excision, typically via conization. - However, in this context, conization is performed primarily for **diagnostic purposes** (to visualize and assess the full extent of disease and rule out invasion) rather than as the specific **therapeutic standard**. - Unlike microinvasive carcinoma where conization is the established therapeutic approach, here it addresses a diagnostic limitation.

Question 753: What is the recommended treatment for stage III B cervical cancer?

A. Radical hysterectomy (Wertheim's operation)
B. Radiotherapy (external beam)
C. Chemotherapy (intravenous)
D. Combined chemoradiation (chemotherapy + radiotherapy) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Combined chemoradiation (chemotherapy + radiotherapy)*** - For **Stage IIB-IVA cervical cancer**, combined chemoradiation is the standard of care, offering superior outcomes compared to either modality alone. - The combination of **cisplatin-based chemotherapy** and **external beam radiation therapy (EBRT)**, often followed by **brachytherapy**, improves local control and survival rates. *Radical hysterectomy (Wertheim's operation)* - **Radical hysterectomy** is generally reserved for **early-stage cervical cancer (IA2-IIA)** that is surgically resectable. - In Stage IIIB disease, the tumor has spread to the **pelvic sidewall** and/or involves the **lower third of the vagina**, making surgical resection highly unlikely to achieve negative margins and posing a high risk of complications. *Radiotherapy (external beam)* - While **radiotherapy** is a crucial component of treatment for locally advanced cervical cancer, using it as a standalone treatment for Stage IIIB is **less effective** than combined chemoradiation. - Concurrent chemotherapy, particularly with **cisplatin**, sensitizes tumor cells to radiation, thereby **enhancing the efficacy of radiotherapy** and improving survival. *Chemotherapy (intravenous)* - **Chemotherapy alone** is generally insufficient for curing locally advanced cervical cancer due to its limited ability to eradicate macroscopic disease. - It is primarily used here as a **radiosensitizer** to augment the effects of radiation therapy, not as a primary monotherapy.

Question 754: Which of the following is the least likely site for metastasis in cases of vulvar cancer?

A. Urethra
B. Deep inguinal nodes
C. Superficial inguinal nodes
D. Paraaortic nodes (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Paraaortic nodes*** - **Paraaortic nodes** are typically involved only in advanced or very widespread metastatic disease of the vulva, usually after involvement of more proximal lymphatic basins or direct tumor extension. - The **lymphatic drainage** of the vulva primarily follows a defined pathway, making direct spread to paraaortic nodes less common than to other regional nodes. *Urethra* - The **urethra** can be a site of local invasion or direct extension from a vulvar tumor, especially if the tumor is located near the clitoris or anterior vulva. - Direct spread to adjacent structures is a common route of tumor progression in many cancers, including vulvar cancer. *Deep inguinal nodes* - The **deep inguinal lymph nodes** are a common secondary site of metastasis, receiving lymphatic drainage from superficial inguinal nodes and sometimes directly from vulvar tissue. - Involvement of these nodes indicates more advanced regional spread than superficial inguinal node involvement alone, but still follows the primary lymphatic pathways. *Superficial inguinal nodes* - The **superficial inguinal lymph nodes** are the **primary drainage site** for the vulva and are the most common site for initial lymphatic metastasis. - Their involvement is a critical factor in staging vulvar cancer and guiding treatment decisions.

Question 755: What is the recommended approach for adjuvant treatment in endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I?

A. Radiotherapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy
D. No adjuvant treatment (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***No adjuvant treatment*** - **Stage IA, Grade I endometrial carcinoma** is considered a **low-risk disease** with an excellent prognosis following surgery alone. - The risk of recurrence is minimal, making **adjuvant therapy unnecessary** and not beneficial for improving survival outcomes. *Radiotherapy* - Adjuvant radiotherapy is typically reserved for **higher-risk endometrial cancers** (e.g., higher grade, deeper myometrial invasion, lymphovascular space invasion) to reduce locoregional recurrence. - For **stage IA, grade I disease**, the potential benefits of radiotherapy do not outweigh the risks of its side effects. *Chemotherapy* - Chemotherapy is generally used for **advanced or high-risk endometrial cancers**, often those with systemic spread or specific histological subtypes (e.g., serous, clear cell). - It is **not indicated** for early-stage, low-grade disease like stage IA, grade I, as it offers no survival benefit in this setting. *Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy* - This combined modality approach is reserved for **high-risk endometrial cancers**, often those with extensive disease or aggressive features, to target both local and systemic disease. - For **stage IA, grade I endometrial cancer**, this combination would be **overtreatment**, exposing the patient to significant toxicity without additional benefit.

Question 756: What condition is the EMACO regimen primarily used to treat?

A. Cervical cancer
B. Endometrial cancer
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Choriocarcinoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Choriocarcinoma*** - The **EMACO** regimen (Etoposide, Methotrexate, Actinomycin D, Cyclophosphamide, Vincristine) is a highly effective chemotherapy protocol for treating **gestational trophoblastic neoplasia**, particularly **choriocarcinoma**. - This regimen is chosen for its efficacy in targeting rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells and its ability to achieve **high cure rates** even in metastatic disease. *Cervical cancer* - Treatment for cervical cancer often involves surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy regimens like cisplatin-based combinations, not typically **EMACO**. - EMACO is specifically designed for proliferative trophoblastic diseases, which have different cellular characteristics than **cervical carcinomas**. *Endometrial cancer* - Endometrial cancer is primarily managed with surgery, sometimes followed by radiation or chemotherapy with agents such as carboplatin and paclitaxel, distinct from the **EMACO protocol**. - The pathology and biology of **endometrial adenocarcinoma** differ significantly from choriocarcinoma, requiring different treatment approaches. *Ovarian cancer* - The standard treatment for ovarian cancer usually involves surgery followed by chemotherapy, frequently using drugs like carboplatin and paclitaxel. - **Ovarian neoplasms** are diverse, but the EMACO regimen is not a standard first-line or common chemotherapy option for most types of ovarian cancer.

Question 757: In a patient with choriocarcinoma and jaundice, what is the most appropriate treatment option?

A. Suction evacuation
B. Actinomycin D
C. Multi-agent combination chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
D. Methotrexate

Explanation: ***Multi-agent combination chemotherapy*** - The presence of **jaundice** in a patient with choriocarcinoma indicates **liver metastasis**, classifying this as **high-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia** (WHO risk score ≥7). - High-risk metastatic choriocarcinoma requires **multi-agent combination chemotherapy** such as the **EMA-CO regimen** (Etoposide, Methotrexate, Actinomycin D, Cyclophosphamide, Vincristine/Oncovin). - This approach achieves **cure rates of 80-90%** even in advanced metastatic disease with organ involvement. - Surgical intervention is generally **not indicated** for established metastatic choriocarcinoma. *Methotrexate* - Methotrexate is a **single-agent chemotherapy** regimen used only for **low-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia** (WHO score <7). - It is **insufficient for high-risk disease** with liver metastasis and would lead to treatment failure and disease progression. *Actinomycin D* - Actinomycin D is another **single-agent chemotherapy** option for **low-risk disease only**. - Like methotrexate, it would be **inadequate as monotherapy** for high-risk metastatic choriocarcinoma presenting with jaundice. *Suction evacuation* - **Suction evacuation** is a procedure for removing molar tissue during or after evacuation of a **hydatidiform mole**. - It is **not appropriate for established choriocarcinoma**, especially metastatic disease, where the diagnosis is made by elevated β-hCG and histology/imaging. - In metastatic choriocarcinoma, **chemotherapy is the definitive treatment**, and surgical intervention could cause complications like perforation or hemorrhage.

Question 758: Which of the following conditions can lead to elevated CA-125 levels?

A. Abdominal tuberculosis
B. Cervical cancer
C. Endometriosis
D. All of the options (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **CA-125** is a tumor marker primarily associated with **ovarian cancer**, but it is **not specific** and can be elevated in various benign and malignant conditions. - All three conditions listed—**abdominal tuberculosis**, **cervical cancer**, and **endometriosis**—can cause elevated CA-125 levels, making this marker useful for monitoring but not diagnostic of a specific condition. **Abdominal tuberculosis:** - Causes peritoneal inflammation and ascites, leading to significant **CA-125 elevation** - Can mimic ovarian cancer clinically, making differentiation challenging - CA-125 levels may be markedly elevated (often >500 U/mL) **Cervical cancer:** - Particularly in **advanced stages** with peritoneal involvement, can elevate CA-125 - Elevation occurs due to adjacent tissue involvement and inflammatory response - Less commonly associated with CA-125 than ovarian pathology, but well-documented **Endometriosis:** - One of the most **common benign causes** of elevated CA-125 - Ectopic endometrial tissue and associated inflammation trigger CA-125 production - Levels typically moderate (35-200 U/mL) but can be higher with extensive disease

Question 759: Which of the following does not meet the criteria for conservative surgery in patients with ovarian carcinoma?

A. FIGO stage II disease (Correct Answer)
B. No infiltration of capsule, lymphatics or mesoovarium
C. Well differentiated serous tumor
D. Young patient with no or few children

Explanation: ***FIGO stage II disease*** - **Conservative surgery** (fertility-sparing surgery) for ovarian carcinoma is generally limited to **early-stage disease**, specifically **FIGO stage IA**. - **FIGO stage II** involves tumor extension beyond the ovaries to other pelvic structures, necessitating more aggressive surgical management, typically including **bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy** and **hysterectomy**. *Young patient with no or few children* - This criterion supports considering conservative surgery as it indicates a desire to preserve **fertility**. - **Fertility preservation** is a primary goal when electing conservative management for ovarian cancer. *Well differentiated serous tumor* - **Well-differentiated tumors** (low grade) are associated with a better prognosis and lower risk of recurrence, making conservative surgery a safer option. - This characteristic suggests a less aggressive tumor biology, further supporting the choice of **fertility-sparing surgery**. *No infiltration of capsule, lymphatics or mesoovarium* - The absence of infiltration into these structures indicates a **confined tumor**, reducing the risk of microscopic spread and recurrence. - This criterion is essential for ensuring that conservative surgery adequately removes all disease and prevents dissemination, thus confirming **early-stage disease**.

Question 760: Most common cause of vulval carcinoma?

A. HPV infection (Correct Answer)
B. EBV infection
C. Herpes genitalis infection
D. Syphilis infection

Explanation: ***HPV infection*** - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**, particularly high-risk strains like HPV 16 and 18, is the most significant risk factor and cause of most vulvar squamous cell carcinomas. - HPV leads to **dysplastic changes** in the vulvar epithelium (vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia, VIN) that can progress to invasive cancer. *EBV infection* - **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)** is primarily associated with lymphomas (e.g., Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma) and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, not vulvar carcinoma. - While EBV can cause various cancers, there is no direct link establishing it as a common cause of vulvar malignancy. *Herpes genitalis infection* - **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)** causes painful genital lesions but is not a recognized cause of vulvar carcinoma. - HSV infection is not associated with the cellular changes that lead to squamous cell cancer development. *Syphilis infection* - **Syphilis**, caused by *Treponema pallidum*, can lead to genital ulcers (chancres) and other systemic manifestations but is not a known cause of vulvar carcinoma. - While chronic inflammation is a risk factor for some cancers, syphilis does not directly induce the genetic mutations typical of vulvar cancer.

Practice by Chapter

Cervical Cancer

Practice Questions

Endometrial Cancer

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Ovarian Cancer

Practice Questions

Vulvar and Vaginal Cancer

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Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

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Screening for Gynecologic Cancers

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Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery

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Radiation Therapy in Gynecologic Malignancies

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Chemotherapy in Gynecologic Oncology

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Palliative Care in Gynecologic Oncology

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