Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 741: A 34-year-old woman presents with persistent irregular uterine bleeding six months after a molar pregnancy evacuation. Serum β-hCG levels are elevated, and imaging shows multiple lung nodules. Given these findings, what is the most appropriate management approach?

A. Surgical removal of the uterus (hysterectomy)
B. Single-agent chemotherapy with methotrexate
C. Multi-agent chemotherapy using the EMA-CO protocol (Correct Answer)
D. Monitoring with regular follow-up and imaging

Explanation: ***Multi-agent chemotherapy using the EMA-CO protocol*** - The combination of **persistent irregular uterine bleeding**, **elevated serum β-hCG**, and **multiple lung nodules** six months after a molar pregnancy evacuation is highly suggestive of **high-risk gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN)**, specifically **choriocarcinoma with metastatic disease**. - **EMA-CO (etoposide, methotrexate, actinomycin D, cyclophosphamide, vincristine)** is the gold-standard multi-agent chemotherapy regimen for high-risk GTN due to its high efficacy in achieving remission and cure. *Surgical removal of the uterus (hysterectomy)* - While hysterectomy can be considered in some cases of **low-risk GTN** or for patients desiring definitive contraception, it is not the primary treatment for **metastatic disease** like lung nodules. - Hysterectomy alone would not address the **systemic spread** of the trophoblastic disease. *Single-agent chemotherapy with methotrexate* - **Single-agent chemotherapy**, often with **methotrexate** or **actinomycin D**, is appropriate for **low-risk GTN (non-metastatic or good prognosis metastatic disease)**. - Given the presence of **multiple lung nodules**, this patient is categorized as **high-risk GTN**, for which single-agent therapy is insufficient and would likely lead to treatment failure. *Monitoring with regular follow-up and imaging* - This approach is only appropriate for patients with declining or normalizing β-hCG levels after molar evacuation who are in follow-up for **remission**, or for those with **low-risk GTN** after initial treatment. - The elevated β-hCG and metastatic lung nodules indicate **active and aggressive disease** requiring immediate and aggressive treatment, not just monitoring.

Question 742: What is the recommended initial treatment for a woman diagnosed with gestational trophoblastic neoplasia?

A. Chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
B. Hysterectomy
C. Radiation therapy
D. Biologic therapy

Explanation: ***Chemotherapy*** - **Chemotherapy** is the cornerstone of treatment for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN), especially for **high-risk disease** or persistent low-risk disease after suction curettage. - **Methotrexate** or **actinomycin D** are common first-line agents, with multi-agent regimens like EMA-CO reserved for high-risk cases. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** may be considered in cases of GTN where future fertility is not desired or in specific scenarios like **chemotherapy-resistant disease** confined to the uterus. - It is not the initial treatment strategy, particularly for patients who wish to preserve fertility. *Radiation therapy* - **Radiation therapy** is generally reserved for GTN cases with **brain metastases** or other specific sites of resistant disease, often in conjunction with chemotherapy. - It is not a standard initial treatment for uncomplicated GTN. *Biologic therapy* - **Biologic therapy** is an emerging area of research for GTN, but it is not currently an established initial treatment modality. - Treatment guidelines primarily recommend **chemotherapy** due to its proven efficacy.

Question 743: A 35-year-old woman presents with dyspareunia and is found to have a bluish vascular lesion on vaginal examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Endometriosis
B. Bartholin cyst
C. Vaginal varices (Correct Answer)
D. Vaginal metastasis from choriocarcinoma

Explanation: ***Vaginal varices*** - **Dyspareunia** and the presence of a **bluish vascular lesion** on vaginal examination are classic signs of vaginal varices. - These are dilated veins, often asymptomatic but can cause pain, especially during intercourse or pregnancy, and can appear as a *bluish, soft mass*. *Endometriosis* - While endometriosis can cause **dyspareunia**, it typically presents with **reddish-purple or black nodules** rather than a bluish vascular lesion. - Endometrial implants are commonly found in the posterior cul-de-sac or uterosacral ligaments, not usually as a distinct superficial vascular lesion in the vagina. *Bartholin cyst* - A Bartholin cyst presents as a **fluctuant, non-tender mass at the lower-posterior aspect of the labia majora**, near the vaginal opening, not typically within the vaginal canal itself. - It results from obstruction of the Bartholin duct and does not appear as a *bluish vascular lesion*. *Vaginal metastasis from choriocarcinoma* - Vaginal metastasis from choriocarcinoma is a serious condition that can present as **red or purple, friable nodules** or plaques that bleed easily. - Although it can appear vascular, the description of a *bluish vascular lesion* is less characteristic of this malignancy, which is often associated with a history of recent pregnancy.

Question 744: A 58-year-old woman has heavy uterine bleeding. Her biopsy shows irregular glands lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium invading the myometrium. Which condition is consistent with this presentation?

A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Adenomyosis
C. Endometrial carcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Endometriosis

Explanation: ***Endometrial carcinoma*** - The presence of **irregular glands lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium** invading the myometrium is a hallmark of **endometrial adenocarcinoma**, the most common type of endometrial cancer. - **Heavy uterine bleeding** in a 58-year-old woman (postmenopausal or perimenopausal) is a classic symptom requiring immediate investigation for malignancy. *Endometrial hyperplasia* - While endometrial hyperplasia involves proliferation of endometrial glands, it typically presents as **glandular crowding** without stromal invasion or highly atypical features like pseudostratified columnar epithelium invading the myometrium. - Although it is a precursor lesion, the described uterine invasion points to a more advanced malignant process. *Adenomyosis* - This condition involves the presence of **benign endometrial glands and stroma** within the myometrium, not irregular, pseudostratified, or invasive malignant glands. - It often causes **dysmenorrhea** and **menorrhagia**, but the biopsy findings rule out adenomyosis as the primary diagnosis. *Endometriosis* - Endometriosis is characterized by **ectopic endometrial tissue** outside the uterus, most commonly on the ovaries and peritoneal surfaces. - It does not involve the invasion of the myometrium by irregular, pseudostratified epithelium from the uterine lining itself.

Question 745: A 30-year-old woman presents with a rapidly enlarging, firm mass in the lower abdomen. What is the initial diagnostic test to evaluate for leiomyosarcoma?

A. MRI of the pelvis
B. Transvaginal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
C. CT scan of the abdomen
D. Biopsy of the mass

Explanation: ***Transvaginal ultrasound*** - **Transvaginal ultrasound** is the **initial/first-line imaging modality** for evaluating any pelvic mass or suspected uterine pathology, including rapidly enlarging masses. - It can assess **size, location, echogenicity, vascularity (with Doppler),** and growth patterns of uterine masses. - While it cannot definitively distinguish leiomyoma from leiomyosarcoma, it identifies **suspicious features** such as irregular borders, heterogeneous echotexture, central necrosis, and rapid growth that warrant further investigation. - It is **readily available, cost-effective, non-invasive,** and provides excellent initial assessment before proceeding to more advanced imaging. *MRI of the pelvis* - **MRI** is the **gold standard for characterizing** uterine masses and differentiating benign from malignant lesions, but it is a **second-line imaging** modality. - It provides superior soft tissue contrast and helps assess **local invasion, tumor borders, and vascularity** in detail, which is crucial for surgical planning. - MRI is typically ordered **after** an initial ultrasound identifies concerning features requiring further evaluation. *Biopsy of the mass* - **Biopsy** provides definitive histological diagnosis but is **not recommended as an initial step** for suspected uterine leiomyosarcoma. - Percutaneous or transvaginal biopsies carry significant risks including **tumor seeding, hemorrhage,** and may complicate subsequent surgical management. - Diagnosis is typically made through imaging followed by **surgical excision** with histopathological examination. *CT scan of the abdomen* - **CT scan** can identify an abdominal mass but has **inferior soft tissue resolution** compared to both ultrasound and MRI for evaluating uterine pathology. - Its primary role is in assessing **distant metastases, lymphadenopathy,** and retroperitoneal involvement in confirmed or highly suspected malignancies. - It is not the preferred initial imaging for a suspected uterine mass.

Question 746: A 65-year-old female presents with postmenopausal bleeding, and an ultrasound reveals a thickened endometrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ovarian cyst
B. Cervical polyp
C. Vaginal atrophy
D. Endometrial carcinoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Endometrial carcinoma*** - **Postmenopausal bleeding** is the classic symptom of endometrial carcinoma, and a **thickened endometrium** on ultrasound is a key indicator. - Endometrial cancer is the most common gynecologic malignancy, particularly in **postmenopausal women**. *Ovarian cyst* - While ovarian cysts are common, they typically present with pelvic pain, pressure, or are asymptomatic, and do not cause **postmenopausal bleeding** or a **thickened endometrium**. - An ultrasound would show a cystic mass in the ovary, not endometrial changes. *Cervical polyp* - Cervical polyps can cause intermenstrual bleeding or postcoital bleeding, but they usually result in **spotting** rather than significant postmenopausal bleeding. - They are typically visualized during a speculum exam and would not explain a diffusely **thickened endometrium** on ultrasound. *Vaginal atrophy* - **Vaginal atrophy** can cause spotting or light bleeding due to thinning and fragility of the vaginal mucosa. - However, it would not lead to a **thickened endometrium** on ultrasound and is usually associated with symptoms like vaginal dryness and dyspareunia.

Question 747: A 45-year-old woman presents for her annual gynecological exam. Which cytology-based screening test is primarily used for cervical cancer screening?

A. Colonoscopy
B. Mammography
C. Pap smear (Correct Answer)
D. CA-125

Explanation: ***Pap smear*** - A **Pap smear** (Papanicolaou test) is the primary screening tool for **cervical cancer**, detecting **precancerous** and cancerous cells on the cervix. - Given her history of **HPV infection**, which is the main cause of **cervical cancer**, regular Pap smears are crucial for early detection and prevention. *Colonoscopy* - A **colonoscopy** is used to screen for **colorectal cancer** by examining the large intestine for polyps or abnormal tissue. - It is not indicated for cervical cancer screening. *Mammography* - **Mammography** is a screening tool specifically for detecting **breast cancer**. - It uses X-rays to visualize breast tissue and is unrelated to cervical cancer screening. *CA-125* - **CA-125** is a tumor marker primarily used for monitoring treatment response in women with **ovarian cancer**, not as a general screening tool for the general population. - While it can be elevated in some gynecological conditions, it is not a recommended screening test for cervical cancer due to its low specificity and sensitivity for this purpose.

Question 748: A 45-year-old woman with endometrial cancer exhibits deep myometrial invasion and pelvic lymph node involvement. What is the best treatment?

A. Chemoradiation (Correct Answer)
B. Hysterectomy + radiation
C. Hysterectomy only
D. Chemotherapy only

Explanation: ***Correct: Chemoradiation*** - **Deep myometrial invasion + pelvic lymph node involvement** indicates **Stage IIIC1 endometrial cancer** (FIGO staging), which is high-risk disease requiring multimodal therapy - Standard treatment is **surgery** (total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy + lymphadenectomy) followed by **adjuvant chemotherapy plus radiation** - **Combined chemoradiation** (concurrent or sequential) is superior to radiation alone for **node-positive disease** as it addresses both local recurrence risk and systemic micrometastases - Evidence from **GOG-122, PORTEC-3, and GOG-258 trials** supports chemotherapy + radiation for advanced/high-risk endometrial cancer *Incorrect: Hysterectomy + radiation* - While surgery followed by radiation was historically used, this approach is **insufficient for Stage IIIC disease** with lymph node involvement - **Radiation alone does not address systemic disease risk** - patients with positive nodes have high risk of distant metastases requiring systemic chemotherapy - Modern guidelines (NCCN, ESMO) recommend **adding chemotherapy** to surgery and radiation for node-positive disease *Incorrect: Hysterectomy only* - Surgery alone is appropriate only for **early-stage, low-risk endometrial cancer** (Stage IA, Grade 1-2) - With deep myometrial invasion and lymph node involvement, surgery alone has **unacceptably high recurrence rates** - Adjuvant therapy is mandatory for disease control *Incorrect: Chemotherapy only* - Chemotherapy alone does not provide adequate **local-regional control** - While chemotherapy addresses systemic disease, **pelvic radiation is needed** to control local disease in the pelvis and reduce pelvic recurrence - The optimal approach combines both modalities after surgical staging

Question 749: In a 54-year-old woman presenting with grade 1 endometrial cancer and a strong family history of Lynch syndrome, which genetic test is essential before deciding between a conservative and a radical treatment approach?

A. BRCA1/2 gene testing
B. MLH1/MSH2/MSH6/PMS2 genetic testing (Correct Answer)
C. K-ras mutation testing
D. HER2/neu amplification

Explanation: ***MLH1/MSH2/MSH6/PMS2 genetic testing*** - Given the **strong family history of Lynch syndrome** and endometrial cancer, testing for mutations in the **mismatch repair (MMR) genes (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2)** is crucial to confirm the diagnosis of Lynch syndrome. - Identifying Lynch syndrome has significant implications for treatment planning (e.g., risk-reducing surgeries), surveillance for other cancers, and genetic counseling for family members. *BRCA1/2 gene testing* - **BRCA1/2 mutations** are primarily associated with hereditary **breast and ovarian cancer syndrome**, not Lynch syndrome. - While BRCA mutations can increase the risk of some other cancers, they are not the primary genetic drivers for endometrial cancer in the context of Lynch syndrome. *K-ras mutation testing* - **K-ras mutations** are frequently found in various cancers, including colorectal cancer and lung cancer, and can be prognostic or predictive of response to certain targeted therapies, but it is not directly linked to the diagnosis of Lynch syndrome or its management. - It would not help to determine whether to pursue conservative vs. radical treatment specific to the hereditary risk associated with Lynch syndrome. *HER2/neu amplification* - **HER2/neu amplification** is a significant biomarker in **breast and gastric cancers**, guiding the use of anti-HER2 targeted therapies. - It is not a relevant genetic test for diagnosing Lynch syndrome or influencing treatment decisions for endometrial cancer in the context of a suspected hereditary cancer syndrome.

Question 750: A 30-year-old woman with a recent pregnancy experiences sudden hematuria and uterine bleeding. Histology reveals syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast cells without chorionic villi. Which malignancy is consistent with this presentation?

A. Choriocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
B. Placental site trophoblastic tumor
C. Complete hydatidiform mole
D. Partial hydatidiform mole

Explanation: ***Choriocarcinoma*** - The presence of **syncytiotrophoblast** and **cytotrophoblast cells** without **chorionic villi** in the context of recent pregnancy, uterine bleeding, and hematuria is characteristic of choriocarcinoma. - This highly aggressive tumor often develops after a molar pregnancy, abortion, or normal pregnancy and is associated with very high **beta-hCG levels**. *Complete hydatidiform mole* - Characterized by **swollen chorionic villi** and **trophoblastic proliferation**, which are explicitly stated as absent in the provided histology. - While it can present with uterine bleeding and high hCG, the histological findings differentiate it from choriocarcinoma. *Placental site trophoblastic tumor* - Composed predominantly of **intermediate trophoblast cells** and lacks the prominent syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast differentiation seen in choriocarcinoma. - Though it also follows pregnancy, its microscopic features and clinical behavior, including hCG levels, differ from choriocarcinoma. *Partial hydatidiform mole* - Involves the presence of **fetal tissue** and **some normal chorionic villi** alongside hydropic villi, which are not described in the patient's histology. - It also has a lower risk of malignant transformation compared to complete moles or choriocarcinoma.

Practice by Chapter

Cervical Cancer

Practice Questions

Endometrial Cancer

Practice Questions

Ovarian Cancer

Practice Questions

Vulvar and Vaginal Cancer

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Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

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Screening for Gynecologic Cancers

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Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery

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Radiation Therapy in Gynecologic Malignancies

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Chemotherapy in Gynecologic Oncology

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Palliative Care in Gynecologic Oncology

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