Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

A 58 year old woman with suspected ovarian cancer was operated for surgical staging. On laparotomy and subsequent histopathological examination of the specimen it was found that both ovaries were involved, capsule was ruptured, ascites was present containing malignant cells. Uterus and tubes were normal and there were no peritoneal implants. The FIGO stage for this patient would be:

Q717

Which one of the following is NOT a mandatory procedure for FIGO staging of Carcinoma cervix?

Q718

Consider the following statements regarding Carcinoma Cervix: 1. Clinical staging is done 2. Treatment if provided in stage I leads to survival rate of 80–90 % 3. Surgery is preferred in young women with stage III disease 4. HPV is considered to be the causative agent Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q719

Visual inspection based screening test with 5 % acetic acid is used for the screening of which one of the following cancers?

Q720

The most common site of cervical cancer is:

Gynecologic Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 711: A diabetic obese patient comes with history of post-menopausal bleeding. On examination, there is a supra pubic mass and per vagina there is purulent discharge. The probable diagnosis is:

A. Carcinoma endometrium (Correct Answer)
B. Ovarian carcinoma
C. Uterine myoma
D. Carcinoma cervix

Explanation: ***Carcinoma endometrium*** - **Postmenopausal bleeding** is the hallmark symptom, and the patient's **diabetes** and **obesity** are significant risk factors for endometrial carcinoma. - The combination of a **suprapubic mass** (indicating an enlarged uterus or advanced disease) and **purulent vaginal discharge** (suggesting **pyometra** secondary to cervical stenosis caused by tumor) strongly supports this diagnosis. *Ovarian carcinoma* - Ovarian carcinoma primarily presents with vague symptoms like **abdominal distension**, **bloating**, and **pelvic pain**, not typically postmenopausal bleeding as the initial symptom. - While it can cause an abdominal mass, **purulent vaginal discharge** and direct bleeding are not common primary presentations. *Uterine myoma* - **Uterine myomas (fibroids)** are common benign tumors that can cause bleeding, but typically in premenopausal women and characterized by **menorrhagia** or intermenstrual bleeding. - While large fibroids can present as a mass, **postmenopausal bleeding** and especially **purulent discharge** point away from a simple fibroid in this context. *Carcinoma cervix* - **Cervical carcinoma** often presents with **postcoital bleeding** or irregular intermenstrual bleeding, and can cause a mass and discharge. - However, the strong risk factors of **diabetes** and **obesity** are more directly linked to **endometrial cancer** than cervical cancer, and the description of a suprapubic mass suggests a uterine origin rather than primarily cervical.

Question 712: The following are used in the staging of carcinoma of the cervix except:

A. Parametrial involvement
B. Hydroureter (Correct Answer)
C. Pelvic lymph node involvement
D. Vaginal involvement

Explanation: ***Hydroureter*** - While hydroureter (ureteral dilatation) can occur in advanced cervical cancer due to ureteral compression, **hydroureter alone is not a FIGO staging criterion**. - The FIGO staging system specifically uses **hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney** as a criterion for Stage IIIB, not isolated hydroureter. - Hydronephrosis represents kidney involvement, whereas hydroureter refers only to ureteral dilatation, which may not always lead to renal compromise. - This distinction is important: the staging criterion requires **renal involvement/compromise**, not just ureteral changes. *Parametrial involvement* - **Parametrial involvement** is a crucial staging criterion indicating at least **FIGO Stage IIB** disease. - This is assessed by palpation during bimanual examination or confirmed by imaging studies. - Represents lateral extension of the tumor beyond the cervix. *Pelvic lymph node involvement* - **Pelvic lymph node involvement** is a key staging criterion in the **FIGO 2018 staging system**, classified as **Stage IIIC1**. - Assessed through imaging (CT, MRI, PET-CT) or surgical staging. - Significantly impacts prognosis and treatment planning. *Vaginal involvement* - The extent of **vaginal involvement** is a direct FIGO staging criterion. - Involvement of the upper two-thirds indicates **Stage IIA**, while extension to the lower third indicates **Stage IIIA**. - Assessed by careful pelvic examination and imaging.

Question 713: A 60 year old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. On endometrial curettage she is diagnosed as endometrial carcinoma. Which one of the following is a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A. Oral contraceptive use
B. Multiparity
C. Diabetes mellitus (Correct Answer)
D. Smoking

Explanation: ***Diabetes mellitus*** - Diabetes is a significant risk factor for endometrial cancer, particularly due to its association with **obesity** and resulting increased **estrogen levels**. - **Insulin resistance** and elevated insulin-like growth factors can directly promote endometrial cell proliferation. *Oral contraceptive use* - Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs) are actually **protective** against endometrial cancer. - The progestin component in OCPs counteracts the unopposed estrogen effect that is a major driver of endometrial cancer. *Multiparity* - **Multiparity** (having had multiple pregnancies) is generally considered to be protective against endometrial cancer. - This protective effect is thought to be related to the hormonal changes during pregnancy, which involve a higher proportion of **progesterone**. *Smoking* - Smoking is generally associated with an **increased risk of certain cancers,** but it is **not considered a risk factor** for endometrial cancer. - Some studies suggest it might even slightly decrease risk due to anti-estrogenic effects, though this benefit is far outweighed by its many harms.

Question 714: Which one of the following methods is NOT used for cervical cancer screening?

A. VILI
B. VIA
C. Cervical biopsy (Correct Answer)
D. Pap smear

Explanation: ***Cervical biopsy*** - A **cervical biopsy** is a diagnostic procedure performed after an abnormal screening result to confirm the presence of **precancerous** or **cancerous** cells. - It involves removing a tissue sample for histological examination and is not a primary screening method. *VILI* - **Visual Inspection with Lugol's Iodine** (**VILI**) is a method used for cervical cancer screening, particularly in low-resource settings. - It involves applying **Lugol's iodine** to the cervix, where normal glycogen-rich cells stain brown, while abnormal, glycogen-deficient cells remain unstained (yellow). *VIA* - **Visual Inspection with Acetic Acid** (**VIA**) is a cost-effective screening method for cervical cancer, especially in settings where cytology is not readily available. - After applying **acetic acid** to the cervix, abnormal areas with high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio and increased protein content rapidly coagulate the mucus and turn white. *Pap smear* - A **Pap smear** (Papanicolaou test) is a widely used and validated screening test for cervical cancer. - It involves collecting cells from the cervix to detect **dysplastic** or **premalignant changes** and is effective in reducing cervical cancer incidence and mortality.

Question 715: Which one of the following is the serum marker in epithelial ovarian cancer?

A. HCG
B. CEA
C. CA–125 (Correct Answer)
D. AFP

Explanation: ***CA–125*** - **CA-125** (**Cancer Antigen 125**) is the most widely used serum tumor marker for **epithelial ovarian cancer**. - Its levels are often **elevated** in women with epithelial ovarian cancer, particularly in advanced stages, and it is used for **monitoring treatment response** and **detecting recurrence**. *HCG* - **Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)** is primarily associated with **pregnancy** and **gestational trophoblastic disease**. - It may also be elevated in some **germ cell tumors**, but not typically in epithelial ovarian cancer. *CEA* - **Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)** is a tumor marker commonly associated with **colorectal cancer**. - While it can be elevated in other adenocarcinomas, it is **not the primary marker** for epithelial ovarian cancer. *AFP* - **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is a marker primarily associated with **hepatocellular carcinoma** and **germ cell tumors**, particularly **yolk sac tumors**. - It is not a significant marker for common **epithelial ovarian cancers**.

Question 716: A 58 year old woman with suspected ovarian cancer was operated for surgical staging. On laparotomy and subsequent histopathological examination of the specimen it was found that both ovaries were involved, capsule was ruptured, ascites was present containing malignant cells. Uterus and tubes were normal and there were no peritoneal implants. The FIGO stage for this patient would be:

A. Stage III
B. Stage II
C. Stage IV
D. Stage I (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Stage I*** - This case represents **Stage IC** (specifically IC3) according to FIGO ovarian cancer staging criteria. - **Stage IC3** is defined as ovarian tumor with **capsule rupture and/or positive peritoneal washings/ascites with malignant cells**. - Key features present: both ovaries involved, **capsule ruptured**, **ascites with malignant cells**, but **no peritoneal implants**. - The absence of peritoneal implants outside the pelvis means this cannot be Stage III, making Stage IC the correct classification. *Stage II* - Stage II requires **pelvic extension** with involvement of uterus, fallopian tubes, or other pelvic structures. - In this case, the uterus and tubes are explicitly **normal**, ruling out Stage II. - Stage II does not involve malignant ascites as the primary criterion. *Stage III* - Stage III requires **peritoneal implants outside the pelvis** and/or **retroperitoneal/inguinal lymph node involvement**. - This case explicitly states there are **no peritoneal implants**, which excludes Stage III classification. - Common misconception: malignant ascites alone does NOT constitute Stage III; visible implants or lymph node involvement are required. *Stage IV* - Stage IV involves **distant metastasis** to organs such as liver parenchyma, lungs, or extra-abdominal sites, or **pleural effusion with malignant cells**. - No evidence of distant organ involvement is present in this case. - This is clearly not Stage IV disease.

Question 717: Which one of the following is NOT a mandatory procedure for FIGO staging of Carcinoma cervix?

A. Biopsy
B. Pelvic examination
C. Ultrasound abdomen (Correct Answer)
D. Endocervical curettage

Explanation: ***Ultrasound abdomen*** - **Ultrasound abdomen** is **not a mandatory procedure** for the standard FIGO staging of cervical carcinoma. - FIGO staging is primarily a **clinical staging system** based on physical examination, inspection, palpation, and biopsy. - While imaging studies (CT, MRI, ultrasound) are valuable for **treatment planning**, they are not part of the official FIGO staging criteria. - Optional procedures allowed include cystoscopy, proctoscopy, and IVP, but not routine abdominal ultrasound. *Biopsy* - A **tissue biopsy** with histological confirmation is **mandatory** for the diagnosis and staging of cervical carcinoma. - It establishes the presence of malignancy and determines the histological type (squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, etc.). - Without biopsy confirmation, no staging can be performed. *Pelvic examination* - A thorough **pelvic examination** (including inspection, palpation, and speculum examination) is **mandatory** and forms the cornerstone of FIGO staging. - Clinical assessment determines tumor size, vaginal involvement, parametrial extension, and pelvic wall involvement. - FIGO staging is primarily a **clinical staging system**, making pelvic examination essential. *Endocervical curettage* - **Endocervical curettage (ECC)** is **not mandatory** for FIGO staging of invasive cervical carcinoma. - ECC is primarily used in the evaluation of **cervical dysplasia/CIN** to rule out occult endocervical involvement. - Once invasive carcinoma is confirmed by biopsy, ECC does not contribute to staging and is not part of standard FIGO protocols. - However, it may be performed in specific clinical scenarios at the physician's discretion, but it remains optional.

Question 718: Consider the following statements regarding Carcinoma Cervix: 1. Clinical staging is done 2. Treatment if provided in stage I leads to survival rate of 80–90 % 3. Surgery is preferred in young women with stage III disease 4. HPV is considered to be the causative agent Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 4 only*** - **Clinical staging** is the primary method for staging cervical cancer using the FIGO system, as opposed to surgical staging used for other gynecological cancers. - Early detection and treatment in **Stage I** cervical cancer offer excellent prognoses, with survival rates often reported between **80-90%**. - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** is the established causative agent for nearly all cases of cervical cancer, particularly high-risk subtypes like HPV-16 and HPV-18. *1, 2, 3 and 4* - This option is incorrect because it includes statement 3, which is false. - **Stage III** cervical cancer represents locally advanced disease with parametrial involvement or pelvic wall extension, making it unsuitable for primary surgical management. - Stage III disease is managed with **concurrent chemoradiation** (cisplatin-based chemotherapy with external beam radiation and brachytherapy), not surgery, regardless of patient age. *3 and 4 only* - This option is incorrect as it includes the false statement 3 about surgery in Stage III disease. - It also omits the correct statements regarding **clinical staging** (statement 1) and the excellent **survival rates** in Stage I (statement 2). *1 and 2 only* - This option is incomplete as it correctly identifies that **clinical staging** is used and that **Stage I treatment offers good survival**. - However, it fails to include statement 4, which correctly identifies **HPV as the causative agent** of cervical cancer—a fundamental fact in cervical cancer etiology.

Question 719: Visual inspection based screening test with 5 % acetic acid is used for the screening of which one of the following cancers?

A. Oral cancer
B. Lung cancer
C. Breast cancer
D. Cervix cancer (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cervix cancer*** - Visual inspection with **acetic acid (VIA)** is a widely used, low-cost screening method for **cervical cancer**, particularly in low-resource settings. - Acetic acid causes abnormal (dysplastic or cancerous) cervical cells to turn **white (acetowhite lesion)**, making them visible to the naked eye. *Oral cancer* - Screening for **oral cancer** typically involves a visual and tactile examination of the oral cavity by a dentist or healthcare provider. - While acetic acid can highlight some oral lesions, it is **not a standard diagnostic or screening tool** for oral cancer like it is for cervical cancer. *Lung cancer* - Screening for **lung cancer** usually involves **low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)** for high-risk individuals. - There is **no role for acetic acid** in the screening or diagnosis of lung cancer. *Breast cancer* - Screening for **breast cancer** is primarily done through **mammography**, clinical breast exams, and sometimes MRI. - **Acetic acid** has **no application** in the detection or screening of breast cancer.

Question 720: The most common site of cervical cancer is:

A. Endocervix
B. Transformation zone (Correct Answer)
C. Isthmus
D. Ectocervix

Explanation: ***Transformation zone*** - The **transformation zone** is where the squamous epithelium of the **ectocervix** meets the columnar epithelium of the **endocervix**. - This area is highly susceptible to **human papillomavirus (HPV) infection**, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer, making it the most common site of origin. *Endocervix* - The **endocervix** is lined by columnar epithelium and primarily gives rise to **adenocarcinoma**, which is less common than squamous cell carcinoma. - While cervical cancer can occur here, it is not the most frequent site of origin for all types of cervical cancer. *Isthmus* - The **isthmus** is the narrow lower part of the uterus, superior to the cervix. - It is not a primary site for the development of cervical cancer; cancerous changes typically originate within the cervical regions proper. *Ectocervix* - The **ectocervix** is the vaginal portion of the cervix, covered by stratified squamous epithelium. - While **squamous cell carcinomas** frequently occur in the cervix, they mostly originate in the transformation zone, not the ectocervix itself.

Practice by Chapter

Cervical Cancer

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Endometrial Cancer

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Ovarian Cancer

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Vulvar and Vaginal Cancer

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Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

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Screening for Gynecologic Cancers

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Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery

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Radiation Therapy in Gynecologic Malignancies

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Chemotherapy in Gynecologic Oncology

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Palliative Care in Gynecologic Oncology

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