Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Which of the following are indications of cold knife conization? 1. Inconsistent findings between colposcopy, cytology and directed biopsy 2. Persistent CIN-1 lesion in women willing for future fertility 3. Carcinoma in situ 4. Unsatisfactory colposcopic finding where the entire margin of lesion is not visible Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q693

Which of the following are favourable factors in prognosis of ovarian malignancy? 1. Older age group 2. Well-differentiated tumour 3. Smaller tumour volume 4. Younger age group Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q694

Which one of the following is correct regarding choriocarcinoma?

Q695

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding endometrial cancer? 1. Persistent progesterone stimulation is an important etiology. 2. It is more common in white population. 3. HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) syndrome is a high risk factor. 4. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest histopathology.

Q696

Serum level of CA 125 is raised in which of the following conditions?

Q697

Which of the following is the most widely used screening test for cervical cancer?

Q698

The most appropriate management of a 32 weeks pregnant lady with carcinoma cervix stage IIb is.

Q699

A 25 year old patient who has had an abortion four months ago has come with the history of profuse vaginal bleeding. On examination uterus is bulky, both the ovaries are enlarged, pregnancy test is positive. What is the probable clinical diagnosis ?

Q700

A 60-year-old woman is diagnosed with genital malignancy. On physical examination she is found to have the enlargement of superficial inguinal lymph nodes. The most likely organ involved is

Gynecologic Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 691: Prophylactic oophorectomy is recommended in high risk women with which of the following ? 1. Carrying BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes 2. Family history of breast, colon, ovarian cancer 3. Patients having tubo-ovarian abscess Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1 and 2 only*** - Prophylactic oophorectomy is strongly recommended for women carrying **BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes** due to a significantly increased lifetime risk of developing ovarian and breast cancer. - A strong **family history of breast, colon, or ovarian cancer**, especially in multiple first-degree relatives or at early ages, indicates a higher genetic predisposition that warrants consideration for prophylactic oophorectomy. *1, 2 and 3* - While carrying BRCA1/2 genes and a significant family history are indications, a **tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)** is an infectious condition that requires antibiotic treatment and possibly surgical drainage, not a prophylactic oophorectomy for cancer risk reduction. - Prophylactic oophorectomy is performed to reduce cancer risk in genetically predisposed individuals, which is unrelated to the management of an acute infectious process like TOA. *2 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly excludes **BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene carriers**, who are among the highest-risk group for ovarian and breast cancer, making prophylactic oophorectomy a crucial primary prevention strategy. - The inclusion of **tubo-ovarian abscess** as an indication for prophylactic oophorectomy is incorrect, as TOA is an inflammatory condition, not a genetic predisposition to cancer. *1 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly includes **tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)** as a reason for prophylactic oophorectomy; TOA is an infection requiring specific medical or surgical treatment, not risk-reducing surgery for cancer. - This option incorrectly excludes a **strong family history of breast, colon, or ovarian cancer** as a separate indication for prophylactic oophorectomy, especially when genetic testing might not have identified a specific mutation but a high familial risk remains.

Question 692: Which of the following are indications of cold knife conization? 1. Inconsistent findings between colposcopy, cytology and directed biopsy 2. Persistent CIN-1 lesion in women willing for future fertility 3. Carcinoma in situ 4. Unsatisfactory colposcopic finding where the entire margin of lesion is not visible Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: ***1, 3 and 4*** - **Inconsistent findings** between colposcopy, cytology, and directed biopsy necessitate a conization to obtain a more definitive diagnosis and rule out higher-grade lesions or early invasion. - **Carcinoma in situ (CIS)**, also known as CIN 3, requires excisional treatment such as cold knife conization to remove the entire lesion and provide a complete pathological assessment of the margins, which is crucial for determining further management. - An **unsatisfactory colposcopic finding**, particularly when the entire transformation zone and thus the margins of the lesion are not visible, indicates that the full extent of the abnormality cannot be adequately assessed. Cold knife conization allows for removal of the entire endocervical canal for comprehensive evaluation. *2, 3 and 4* - This option is incorrect because **persistent CIN-1 lesions**, especially in women desiring future fertility, are often managed with observation and repeat cytology/colposcopy rather than excisional biopsy, due to the high rate of spontaneous regression and the potential for conization to affect cervical competence. *1, 2 and 3* - This option is incorrect as it includes **persistent CIN-1 lesions** as an indication for cold knife conization, which is generally not the primary management strategy due to the typically benign course of CIN-1. *1, 2 and 4* - This option is incorrect because **persistent CIN-1 lesions** are not a standard indication for cold knife conization, particularly when future fertility is a concern.

Question 693: Which of the following are favourable factors in prognosis of ovarian malignancy? 1. Older age group 2. Well-differentiated tumour 3. Smaller tumour volume 4. Younger age group Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: ***2, 3 and 4*** - **Well-differentiated tumours** indicate less aggressive cell growth and a better prognosis due to their similarity to normal tissue and slower metastatic potential. - **Smaller tumour volume** implies less disease burden, making the cancer more amenable to treatment and reducing the likelihood of widespread metastasis. - **Younger age group** is often associated with better overall health, greater tolerance to aggressive treatments, and a more robust immune response, contributing to a better prognosis in ovarian cancer. *1, 3 and 4* - **Younger age group**, **well-differentiated tumour**, and **smaller tumour volume** are indeed favorable prognostic factors. - However, **older age group** is generally associated with a poorer prognosis in ovarian malignancy due to increased comorbidities and decreased tolerance to aggressive therapies. *1, 2 and 4* - While **well-differentiated tumours** and **younger age group** are favorable, **older age group** is typically a poor prognostic indicator. - This option incorrectly includes older age as a favorable factor and omits **smaller tumour volume**, which is a significant positive prognosticator. *1, 2 and 3* - This option incorrectly lists **older age group** as a favorable factor, which usually indicates a poorer prognosis. - It also includes **well-differentiated tumour** and **smaller tumour volume**, which are indeed favorable, but is flawed by the inclusion of older age.

Question 694: Which one of the following is correct regarding choriocarcinoma?

A. Vaginal bleeding is the commonest presenting symptom (Correct Answer)
B. About 20-30% of patients with molar pregnancies develop choriocarcinoma
C. Highly resistant tumour to chemotherapy
D. Primary site of involvement is fallopian tube

Explanation: ***Vaginal bleeding is the commonest presenting symptom*** - **Vaginal bleeding** (often irregular or persistent) is the most frequent symptom of choriocarcinoma, especially when it arises after a hydatidiform mole or pregnancy. - This bleeding can be accompanied by symptoms related to distant metastases, highlighting the aggressive nature of the disease. *About 20-30% of patients with molar pregnancies develop choriocarcinoma* - The risk of developing choriocarcinoma after a **hydatidiform mole** is much lower than 20-30%; it's estimated to be around 2-3% after a complete mole and less than 0.5% after a partial mole. - The majority of molar pregnancies resolve spontaneously without progressing to choriocarcinoma. *Highly resistant tumour to chemotherapy* - Choriocarcinoma is notably one of the most **chemosensitive solid tumors** and generally responds very well to chemotherapy, even in advanced stages. - This high sensitivity to chemotherapy is a key characteristic that distinguishes it from many other cancers. *Primary site of involvement is fallopian tube* - The primary site of choriocarcinoma is usually the **uterus**, developing from gestational trophoblastic tissue. - While it can metastasize widely, the fallopian tube is not its primary site of involvement.

Question 695: Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding endometrial cancer? 1. Persistent progesterone stimulation is an important etiology. 2. It is more common in white population. 3. HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) syndrome is a high risk factor. 4. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest histopathology.

A. 2. It is more common in white population.
B. 3. HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) syndrome is a high risk factor.
C. 4. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest histopathology.
D. 1. Persistent progesterone stimulation is an important etiology. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1. Persistent progesterone stimulation is an important etiology.*** - This statement is incorrect because **unopposed estrogen stimulation** (without sufficient progesterone to counteract its effects) is the primary endocrine driver for the development of the most common type of endometrial cancer (Type I). - **Progesterone** actually has a protective effect on the endometrium, counteracting estrogen's proliferative actions, and is often used therapeutically to manage or prevent endometrial hyperplasia and some endometrial cancers. *2. It is more common in white population.* - This statement is generally true; **endometrial cancer** has a higher incidence in **white women** compared to women of other ethnic groups. - However, **Black women** have been observed to have a higher mortality rate and present with more aggressive forms of the disease. *3. HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) syndrome is a high risk factor.* - This statement is true. **HNPCC (Lynch syndrome)** is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by germline mutations in mismatch repair genes, significantly increasing the risk of several cancers, including **endometrial cancer**. - Endometrial cancer is the most common extracolonic malignancy in women with Lynch syndrome, often presenting at a younger age. *4. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest histopathology.* - This statement is true. Over **90% of endometrial cancers** are **adenocarcinomas**, specifically endometrioid adenocarcinoma, which originates from the glandular cells of the endometrium. - Other less common histological subtypes include serous, clear cell, and mucinous carcinomas.

Question 696: Serum level of CA 125 is raised in which of the following conditions?

A. Epithelial ovarian cancer
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Endometriosis
D. All of the options (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **CA 125** levels can be elevated in various gynecological conditions, both malignant and benign. - While most recognized for its role in **epithelial ovarian cancer**, it is not exclusively specific to this condition. *Epithelial ovarian cancer* - **CA 125** is a commonly used tumor marker for **epithelial ovarian cancer**, playing a role in its diagnosis, monitoring, and recurrence detection. - While elevated in a high percentage of advanced ovarian cancers, it can also be normal in early-stage disease. *Pelvic inflammatory disease* - **Inflammation** of the pelvic organs, such as in **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**, can cause an increase in **CA 125** levels. - The elevation is typically due to the irritation of the peritoneal surface or the presence of inflammatory exudates. *Endometriosis* - **Endometriosis**, a condition where endometrial-like tissue grows outside the uterus, is a well-known cause of elevated **CA 125**. - The level of **CA 125** often correlates with the severity and extent of the endometrial implants.

Question 697: Which of the following is the most widely used screening test for cervical cancer?

A. Pap test (Correct Answer)
B. Visual inspections with acetic acid
C. HPV DNA test
D. Endocervical curettage

Explanation: ***Pap test*** - The **Pap test** (Papanicolaou test) is the most widely used and effective screening test for cervical cancer globally. - It involves collecting cells from the **cervix** to detect **precancerous** and cancerous changes early. *Endocervical curettage* - **Endocervical curettage** is a diagnostic procedure used to obtain tissue samples from the endocervical canal, typically performed after an abnormal Pap test. - It is a **biopsy procedure**, not a primary screening test for general populations. *Visual inspections with acetic acid* - **Visual inspection with acetic acid (VIA)** is a lower-cost screening method used in resource-limited settings. - It involves applying acetic acid to the cervix and observing for **acetowhite changes**, but its sensitivity and specificity are not as high as the Pap test. *HPV DNA test* - The **HPV DNA test** detects high-risk types of human papillomavirus, which are responsible for most cervical cancers. - While it's increasingly used, especially in conjunction with the Pap test (co-testing) or as primary screening in some settings, the **Pap test** remains the most **widely established** and utilized primary screening method.

Question 698: The most appropriate management of a 32 weeks pregnant lady with carcinoma cervix stage IIb is.

A. Observation and follow-up
B. Chemo-radiation followed by labour induction and vaginal delivery
C. Labour induction, vaginal delivery followed by radio-therapy
D. Cesarean delivery followed by chemoradiation (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cesarean delivery followed by chemoradiation*** - For **stage IIb carcinoma cervix** at 32 weeks gestation, **cesarean delivery** is the safest option to deliver the baby while avoiding trauma to the tumor and potential dissemination. - Subsequently, **chemoradiation** is the standard treatment for stage IIb cervical cancer, ensuring optimal maternal oncologic outcome. *Observation and follow-up* - This approach is **inappropriate** for stage IIb cervical cancer in pregnancy, as it delays definitive treatment and allows for disease progression. - Such an aggressive cancer requires **prompt intervention** for the best maternal prognosis. *Chemo-radiation followed by labour induction and vaginal delivery* - **Chemoradiation during pregnancy** is harmful to the fetus, especially beyond the first trimester. - A **vaginal delivery** in the presence of cervical cancer carries a high risk of hemorrhage and tumor dissemination, making it contraindicated. *Labour induction, vaginal delivery followed by radio-therapy* - **Labour induction and vaginal delivery** are contraindicated due to risks of hemorrhage, tumor spread, and potential obstruction from the tumor. - While radiotherapy would follow, the mode of delivery poses significant risks to the mother.

Question 699: A 25 year old patient who has had an abortion four months ago has come with the history of profuse vaginal bleeding. On examination uterus is bulky, both the ovaries are enlarged, pregnancy test is positive. What is the probable clinical diagnosis ?

A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Choriocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Malignant ovarian tumor

Explanation: ***Choriocarcinoma*** - The combination of a history of **recent abortion** (four months prior), **profuse vaginal bleeding**, a **bulky uterus**, **enlarged ovaries**, and a positive **pregnancy test** strongly suggests choriocarcinoma. The enlarged ovaries are often due to **theca-lutein cysts** formed in response to very high hCG levels produced by the tumor. - Choriocarcinoma is a highly aggressive form of **gestational trophoblastic neoplasia** that typically arises after a molar pregnancy, abortion, or term pregnancy, and it secretes high levels of **hCG**, which accounts for the positive pregnancy test. *Ectopic pregnancy* - While an ectopic pregnancy can present with vaginal bleeding and a positive pregnancy test, it is unlikely to cause a **bulky uterus** or **bilateral enlarged ovaries**. - Symptoms usually appear earlier in pregnancy, and the hCG levels would typically not be as high as to cause theca-lutein cysts or persist four months post-abortion with profuse bleeding without rupture. *Incomplete abortion* - An incomplete abortion could cause vaginal bleeding and a bulky uterus, but it would typically occur much sooner after the abortion event (not four months later) and is generally associated with a declining or low plateau of hCG, not persistently high levels causing enlarged ovaries. - Retained products of conception would be the primary cause of bleeding, not a rapidly growing tumor with systemic effects. *Malignant ovarian tumor* - While a malignant ovarian tumor can cause an **enlarged ovary** (or ovaries) and vaginal bleeding, it would not result in a **positive pregnancy test** unless it was a very rare hCG-producing germ cell tumor, and even then, its presentation with a bulky uterus post-abortion is not typical. - The clinical picture here, particularly the positive pregnancy test and bulky uterus, points more specifically towards a **trophoblastic disease**.

Question 700: A 60-year-old woman is diagnosed with genital malignancy. On physical examination she is found to have the enlargement of superficial inguinal lymph nodes. The most likely organ involved is

A. Adnexa
B. Vulva (Correct Answer)
C. Cervix
D. Uterus

Explanation: ***Vulva (Correct Answer)*** - The **vulva** drains primarily to the **superficial inguinal lymph nodes**, making its malignancy the most likely cause of their enlargement. - Unlike deeper pelvic organs, vulvar cancer metastases travel directly to these easily palpable nodes. - This is a key anatomical principle: **external genitalia → superficial inguinal nodes**. *Adnexa (Incorrect)* - Malignancies of the **adnexa** (ovaries, fallopian tubes) typically metastasize via the **para-aortic or pelvic lymph nodes**, not the superficial inguinal nodes. - These follow the ovarian vessels along the infundibulopelvic ligament. - Distant inguinal node involvement would indicate advanced disease, but initial spread is not to these nodes. *Cervix (Incorrect)* - Cervical cancer primarily metastasizes to the **pelvic lymph nodes** (e.g., obturator, internal iliac, external iliac), with superficial inguinal nodes rarely involved unless there is extensive local spread. - The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is distinct from that of the external genitalia. *Uterus (Incorrect)* - Uterine cancer (endometrial or uterine body) typically spreads to the **pelvic** and **para-aortic lymph nodes**, following the ovarian and uterine vessels. - Like cervical cancer, superficial inguinal lymph node involvement is uncommon and usually a sign of very advanced or unusual spread.

Practice by Chapter

Cervical Cancer

Practice Questions

Endometrial Cancer

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Ovarian Cancer

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Vulvar and Vaginal Cancer

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Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

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Screening for Gynecologic Cancers

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Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery

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Radiation Therapy in Gynecologic Malignancies

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Chemotherapy in Gynecologic Oncology

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Palliative Care in Gynecologic Oncology

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