Gynecologic Oncology Practice Questions

Q: In cervical cancer, surgery is limited to patients with which stage?

Stage I to IIA. **Explanation:** In cervical cancer management, the primary treatment modality is determined by the clinical stage. Surgery is generally reserved for **early-stage disease (Stage I to IIA)**, where the tumor is confined to the cervix or the upper two-thirds of the vagina without involving the parametrium. **1. Why Stage I to IIA is correct:** At these stages, the disease is surgically resectable. Procedures like Radical Hysterectomy (Wertheim’s Hysterectomy) with pelvic lymphadenectomy can achieve clear margins and provide excellent survival rates. Once the cancer reaches **Stage IIB**, it involves the **parametrium**. Surgical clearance of the parametrium is difficult and often results in positive margins; therefore, these patients are better managed with Concurrent Chemoradiotherapy (CCRT). **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Stage IIB (Option B):** This stage marks the beginning of "locally advanced" disease. Parametrial involvement makes surgery technically challenging and increases morbidity without improving survival compared to radiotherapy. * **Stage IIIA/IIIB (Options C & D):** These stages involve the lower third of the vagina (IIIA) or extension to the pelvic wall/hydronephrosis (IIIB). These are strictly managed with radiotherapy as surgery is not curative. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Standard Surgery:** Type III Radical Hysterectomy (Meigs' operation) is the classic choice for Stage IB1 and IIA1. * **Fertility Sparing:** Radical Trachelectomy can be considered for Stage IA2 to IB1 in patients wishing to preserve fertility. * **Treatment of Choice for IIB to IVA:** Concurrent Chemoradiotherapy (Cisplatin-based) is the gold standard. * **Stage IVB:** Managed with palliative chemotherapy. * **Most common cause of death:** Uremia due to bilateral ureteric obstruction (post-renal failure).

Q: Which of the following statements about partial mole is false?

Can be reliably diagnosed by ultrasound in early gestation. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D**. Unlike complete hydatidiform moles, which show a classic "snowstorm appearance" on ultrasound, **partial moles are difficult to diagnose reliably via ultrasound**, especially in early gestation. They often mimic a missed or incomplete abortion. Ultrasound may only show a thickened placenta with some cystic spaces or an increased gestational sac diameter, making histopathological examination the gold standard for diagnosis. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (True):** Partial moles are almost always **triploid (69, XXX or 69, XXY)**, resulting from the fertilization of a normal ovum by two sperm (dispermy). * **Option B (True):** The risk of persistent Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN) after a partial mole is very low (**<1-5%**), compared to 15-20% after a complete mole. Choriocarcinoma following a partial mole is extremely rare. * **Option C (True):** Most partial moles present clinically as a **missed or incomplete abortion**. Patients often undergo evacuation for a non-viable pregnancy, and the diagnosis of a partial mole is an incidental finding on pathology. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Karyotype:** Complete Mole = 46,XX (Diploids); Partial Mole = 69,XXX/XXY (Triploid). * **Fetal Tissue:** Present in Partial Mole; Absent in Complete Mole. * **p57 Expression:** Partial moles are **p57 positive** (maternal DNA present), whereas complete moles are **p57 negative** (no maternal DNA). * **hCG Levels:** Markedly elevated in complete moles; only mildly elevated or normal in partial moles.

Q: What is the next line of management for a post-menopausal female with a biopsy report showing endometrial hyperplasia with atypia?

Type 1 hysterectomy. **Explanation:** The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on two critical factors: the presence of **atypia** and the patient’s **menopausal status**. **1. Why Type 1 Hysterectomy is correct:** Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia (Atypical Hyperplasia/Endometrioid Intraepithelial Neoplasia) is a **premalignant condition**. In post-menopausal women, the risk of progression to endometrial carcinoma is approximately 30%, and there is a high co-existence rate (up to 40%) of an occult invasive malignancy already present at the time of diagnosis. Therefore, the definitive treatment of choice is a **Total Laparoscopic or Abdominal Hysterectomy (Type 1)** with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Oral Progestins (B) & Mirena (C):** Medical management with progestins is reserved for patients with hyperplasia *without* atypia or for those with atypia who are pre-menopausal and strongly desire fertility preservation. In a post-menopausal female, the risk of malignancy outweighs the benefits of medical therapy. * **Dilatation and Curettage (D):** D&C is a diagnostic tool used to obtain a sample. Once the biopsy report has already confirmed atypia, D&C is no longer the "next line of management" as the diagnosis is established. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Risk of Progression (WHO Classification):** * Simple Hyperplasia without atypia: 1% * Complex Hyperplasia without atypia: 3% * Simple Hyperplasia with atypia: 8% * **Complex Hyperplasia with atypia: 29%** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Endometrial biopsy (Pipelle) or D&C. * **Drug of choice for fertility preservation:** Megestrol acetate or Levonorgestrel Intrauterine System (Mirena).

Q: What is the primary treatment for stage I carcinoma of the cervix in a 47-year-old female patient?

Abdominal hysterectomy. **Explanation:** The management of Stage I cervical carcinoma depends on the specific sub-stage and the patient's desire to preserve fertility. For a **47-year-old female** (who is likely completed her family), the primary treatment for early-stage disease is surgical. **Why Abdominal Hysterectomy is correct:** In Stage IA1 (microinvasive carcinoma), a **Type I Total Abdominal Hysterectomy (TAH)** is the treatment of choice if fertility is not desired. For Stage IA2 to IB1, a **Radical Hysterectomy (Wertheim’s Hysterectomy)** with pelvic lymphadenectomy is preferred. Since the question specifies Stage I generally and the patient is 47, surgical removal of the uterus is the definitive standard of care. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Radiotherapy:** While equally effective as surgery for early-stage cervical cancer, it is usually reserved for patients who are medically unfit for surgery or have advanced disease (Stage IIB onwards). In a 47-year-old, surgery is preferred to avoid radiation-induced vaginal fibrosis and to preserve ovarian function (if ovaries are transposed). * **Chemotherapy:** This is not a primary treatment for Stage I. It is used as "concurrent chemoradiation" (usually with Cisplatin) for Stage IIB to IVA or as adjuvant therapy if high-risk factors are found post-surgery. * **Cone Biopsy:** This is a fertility-sparing procedure. It is only indicated for Stage IA1 patients who wish to maintain childbearing potential. At age 47, a more definitive hysterectomy is indicated. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Stage IA1:** Treatment is TAH (if family complete) or Cone biopsy (if fertility desired). * **Stage IB1 to IIA1:** Radical Hysterectomy (Wertheim’s) is the gold standard. * **Stage IIB onwards:** The treatment of choice shifts to **Concurrent Chemoradiotherapy (CCRT)**. * **The most common cause of death** in cervical cancer is uremia due to ureteric obstruction.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an indication for adjuvant radiotherapy in carcinoma of the endometrium?

Grade I without myometrial involvement. **Explanation:** In endometrial carcinoma, the decision to administer adjuvant radiotherapy (RT) is based on the risk of recurrence, which is determined by the FIGO stage, histological grade, and specific high-risk features. **Why Option C is the correct answer:** Grade I tumors without myometrial involvement (Stage IA, Grade 1) are classified as **low-risk**. These patients have an excellent prognosis with surgery alone (total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy). The risk of recurrence is minimal (<5%), making adjuvant radiotherapy unnecessary as it would provide no survival benefit while increasing morbidity. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Cervical involvement (Option A):** This indicates Stage II disease. Involvement of the cervical stroma significantly increases the risk of pelvic recurrence, making adjuvant pelvic radiotherapy a standard recommendation. * **Lymph node involvement (Option B):** This indicates Stage IIIC disease. Positive nodes are a high-risk feature requiring adjuvant therapy (often a combination of chemotherapy and radiation) to control regional and systemic spread. * **Papillary serous tumor (Option D):** This is a Type II endometrial cancer. Regardless of the stage or depth of invasion, these are considered high-grade, aggressive histologies with a high propensity for extrauterine spread, necessitating adjuvant treatment. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Type I Endometrial Cancer:** Estrogen-dependent, endometrioid histology, better prognosis. * **Type II Endometrial Cancer:** Estrogen-independent, Serous/Clear cell histology, p53 mutations, poor prognosis. * **Adjuvant RT Indications:** Generally indicated for Stage IB (Grade 3), Stage II, and Stage III. * **Vaginal Brachytherapy:** Often used for intermediate-risk patients to reduce local vault recurrence. * **Most common site of recurrence:** The vaginal vault.

Q: An ultrasound finding in a pregnant female shows a 'snowstorm' appearance, which is characteristic of hydatidiform mole. What is the most common gestational trophoblastic disease that follows a hydatidiform mole?

Invasive mole. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Invasive mole**. **1. Why Invasive Mole is Correct:** Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD) represents a spectrum of tumors arising from the placenta. Following a hydatidiform mole (especially a complete mole), approximately 15–20% of patients develop Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN). Among these cases, **Invasive mole** is the most common histological type, accounting for nearly **70–80%** of post-molar GTN. It is characterized by the presence of hydropic villi that invade the myometrium or its blood vessels. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Choriocarcinoma:** While it is the most aggressive form of GTN and can follow a mole, it is less common than an invasive mole (occurring in about 2–3% of molar pregnancies). It is characterized by the absence of chorionic villi. * **Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumor (PSTT):** This is a very rare form of GTN arising from intermediate trophoblasts. It more commonly follows a full-term pregnancy or abortion rather than a hydatidiform mole. * **Placental Nodule:** This is generally a benign, incidental finding representing a remnant of a previous pregnancy and is not considered a malignant gestational trophoblastic disease. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Snowstorm appearance:** The classic ultrasound finding for a complete hydatidiform mole (due to multiple hydropic villi). * **Risk of Malignancy:** Complete moles have a higher risk (15–20%) of progressing to GTN compared to partial moles (<5%). * **Diagnosis of GTN:** Usually made by the **FIGO criteria** based on plateauing or rising serum β-hCG levels post-evacuation, rather than histology. * **Treatment:** Invasive moles are highly sensitive to chemotherapy (Methotrexate is the first-line drug for low-risk cases).

Q: Which type of ovarian cyst is least likely to undergo malignant transformation?

None of the above. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **None of the above** because all three types of ovarian cysts mentioned—Serous cystadenoma, Mucinous cystadenoma, and Dermoid cysts—possess a documented potential for malignant transformation. In the context of NEET-PG, it is crucial to understand that while these are primarily benign, they are precursors or have associated malignant counterparts. * **Serous Cystadenoma:** This is the most common benign epithelial tumor. However, it has a significant risk of malignant transformation into **Serous Cystadenocarcinoma**, which is the most common malignant ovarian tumor. * **Mucinous Cystadenoma:** These can grow to massive sizes. About 10% undergo malignant change into **Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma**. They are also associated with *Pseudomyxoma peritonei* if they rupture. * **Dermoid Cyst (Mature Cystic Teratoma):** While 98% are benign, approximately **1-2%** undergo malignant transformation, most commonly into **Squamous Cell Carcinoma** (arising from the ectodermal component). Since all three options carry a risk of malignancy, none can be classified as "least likely" in a way that excludes the others; rather, the question highlights that malignancy is a potential complication for all common benign ovarian neoplasms. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Most common malignant change in a Dermoid:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma. * **Most common ovarian neoplasm overall:** Serous Cystadenoma. * **Psammoma bodies:** Characteristically seen in Serous tumors (both benign and malignant). * **Tumor Marker for Epithelial Ovarian Cancer:** CA-125.

Question 1

In cervical cancer, surgery is limited to patients with which stage?

Accepted Answer

Stage I to IIA

Answer

Stage I to IIB

Answer

Stage I to IIIA

Answer

Stage I to IIIB

Question 2

Which of the following statements about partial mole is false?

Accepted Answer

Can be reliably diagnosed by ultrasound in early gestation

Answer

Usually associated with triploidy

Answer

Rarely causes persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

Answer

Usually presents as missed abortions

Question 3

What is the next line of management for a post-menopausal female with a biopsy report showing endometrial hyperplasia with atypia?

Accepted Answer

Type 1 hysterectomy

Answer

Oral progestins

Answer

Mirena

Answer

Dilatation and curettage

Question 4

Which of the following is true about Carcinoma of the cervix?

Accepted Answer

Approximately 90% are associated with HPV infection.

Answer

Nulliparity is a risk factor.

Answer

Androgens are implicated in its development.

Answer

It predominantly affects immunocompetent patients.

Question 5

What is the primary treatment for stage I carcinoma of the cervix in a 47-year-old female patient?

Accepted Answer

Abdominal hysterectomy

Answer

Radiotherapy

Answer

Chemotherapy

Answer

Cone biopsy

Question 6

Which of the following statements regarding Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone (LLETZ) is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

A loop size greater than 2cm results in a better cone specimen.

Answer

Utilizes low voltage diathermy.

Answer

Is applicable only to the cervix.

Answer

Has a shorter procedure time compared to laser ablation.

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT an indication for adjuvant radiotherapy in carcinoma of the endometrium?

Accepted Answer

Grade I without myometrial involvement

Answer

Cervical involvement

Answer

Lymph node involvement

Answer

Papillary serous tumor

Question 8

An ultrasound finding in a pregnant female shows a 'snowstorm' appearance, which is characteristic of hydatidiform mole. What is the most common gestational trophoblastic disease that follows a hydatidiform mole?

Accepted Answer

Invasive mole

Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Answer

Placental site trophoblastic tumor

Answer

Placental nodule

Question 9

Which type of ovarian cyst is least likely to undergo malignant transformation?

Accepted Answer

None of the above

Answer

Mucinous cystadenoma

Answer

Serous cystadenoma

Answer

Dermoid cyst

Question 10

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Gestational Trophoblastic Disease?

Accepted Answer

Liver metastasis carries a poor prognosis similar to brain metastasis.

Answer

The most common site of metastasis is the vagina.

Answer

The presence of lung metastasis classifies the disease as stage 4 GTN.

Answer

GTN following a term pregnancy has a better prognosis than that with a previous molar pregnancy.

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

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