Gynecologic Oncology — MCQs

Gynecologic Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 151: The most malignant endometrial carcinoma is:

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Adenoacanthoma
C. Mixed adenosquamous carcinoma
D. Clear cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation Endometrial carcinomas are broadly classified into two types (Bokhman’s classification). **Type II carcinomas** are non-estrogen dependent, occur in older postmenopausal women, arise from atrophic endometrium, and carry a significantly worse prognosis due to high-grade features and early lymphovascular invasion. **Why Clear Cell Carcinoma is the correct answer:** Clear cell carcinoma is a classic **Type II endometrial cancer**. It is highly aggressive, characterized by high nuclear grade, and often presents at an advanced stage. It has a high propensity for deep myometrial invasion and peritoneal spread, making it the most malignant among the options provided. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Adenocarcinoma (Endometrioid):** This is the most common type (Type I). It is estrogen-dependent, arises from endometrial hyperplasia, and generally has a favorable prognosis as it is often well-differentiated and diagnosed early. * **B. Adenoacanthoma:** This is a variant of endometrioid adenocarcinoma with benign squamous metaplasia. It generally carries a good prognosis, similar to typical Grade 1 adenocarcinoma. * **C. Mixed Adenosquamous Carcinoma:** This contains both malignant glandular and malignant squamous components. While it is more aggressive than simple adenocarcinoma, its prognosis is generally better than clear cell or papillary serous carcinomas. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common type:** Endometrioid adenocarcinoma. * **Most aggressive/malignant overall:** Uterine Papillary Serous Carcinoma (UPSC) and Clear Cell Carcinoma. * **Genetic Association:** Type I is associated with PTEN mutations; Type II (Clear cell/Serous) is associated with **p53 mutations**. * **Psammoma bodies:** Frequently seen in Papillary Serous Carcinoma, not typically in clear cell. * **Clear Cell Histology:** Characterized by "hobnail" cells and glycogen-rich clear cytoplasm.

Question 152: What types of human papillomavirus are most commonly associated with cervical carcinoma?

A. Types 6, 12, 18
B. Types 16, 18, 31 (Correct Answer)
C. Types 6, 8, 11
D. Types 3, 10, 19

Explanation: **Explanation:** Cervical carcinoma is primarily caused by persistent infection with **High-Risk Human Papillomavirus (HR-HPV)**. These viruses integrate their DNA into the host genome, leading to the overexpression of oncoproteins **E6 and E7**, which inactivate tumor suppressor proteins **p53 and pRb**, respectively. * **Why Option B is Correct:** HPV types **16 and 18** are the most oncogenic, accounting for approximately 70% of all cervical cancers worldwide (HPV 16 is associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma, while HPV 18 is strongly linked to Adenocarcinoma). Type **31** is the next most common high-risk subtype. Other high-risk types include 33, 35, 45, 52, and 58. * **Why Options A, C, and D are Incorrect:** * **Types 6 and 11** (found in Options A and C) are **Low-Risk HPV** types. They are responsible for 90% of genital warts (Condyloma acuminata) and recurrent respiratory papillomatosis but rarely cause malignancy. * Types such as 3, 8, 10, and 12 are generally associated with cutaneous warts or other non-cervical conditions and do not have a significant association with cervical neoplasia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common type:** HPV 16 (found in ~50-60% of cases). * **Screening:** The primary screening tool is the Pap smear (cytology) or HPV DNA testing (COBAS). * **Vaccination:** The **Nonavalent vaccine (Gardasil 9)** covers types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58. * **Transformation Zone:** The most common site for cervical cancer development is the Squamocolumnar Junction (SCJ).

Question 153: What is the appropriate treatment for a 23-year-old mother with carcinoma in situ of the cervix?

A. Total hysterectomy
B. Cone biopsy and follow-up (Correct Answer)
C. Radiation
D. Wertheim's hysterectomy

Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of **Carcinoma in situ (CIS)**, now classified under **CIN 3 (Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia Grade 3)**, depends heavily on the patient's age and desire for future fertility. **Why Option B is Correct:** In a **23-year-old** patient (young, likely desiring fertility preservation), the goal is to be as conservative as possible while ensuring complete removal of the lesion. **Cone biopsy** (Cold Knife Conization or LEEP) serves both a diagnostic and therapeutic purpose. It allows for the evaluation of the entire transformation zone to rule out occult invasive cancer while preserving the uterus and cervix for future pregnancies. Regular **follow-up** with cytology and HPV testing is mandatory to monitor for recurrence. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. Total Hysterectomy:** While this provides a definitive cure for CIS, it is considered overtreatment for a 23-year-old. It is generally reserved for older women who have completed their family or when margins remain positive after repeated conization. * **C. Radiation:** Radiotherapy is indicated for advanced invasive cervical cancer (Stage IIB and beyond). It is never used for pre-invasive lesions like CIS due to its high morbidity and destruction of ovarian function. * **D. Wertheim’s Hysterectomy:** This is a Radical Hysterectomy used for early-stage **invasive** cervical cancer (e.g., Stage IA2, IB1). It involves removing the uterus, parametrium, and pelvic lymph nodes, which is unnecessary for a non-invasive lesion (CIS). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Colposcopy-directed biopsy. * **Treatment of Choice for CIN 2/3 in young patients:** Cervical Conization (LEEP/Large Loop Excision of the Transformation Zone is most common). * **Microinvasive Carcinoma (Stage IA1):** If <3mm invasion and no lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI), cone biopsy is still sufficient if fertility is desired. * **Pregnancy Post-Conization:** Increases the risk of cervical incompetence and preterm mid-trimester abortions.

Question 154: All are true about gestational trophoblastic disease except?

A. Complete mole genome is diploid (Correct Answer)
B. Choriocarcinoma rarely follows full-term pregnancy
C. Suction and curettage remove most of a hydatidiform mole
D. Snowstorm appearance on USG is characteristic of a hydatidiform mole

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: A. Complete mole genome is diploid** *Note: The question asks for the "Except" (false) statement. While a complete mole is indeed diploid (46,XX or 46,XY), in the context of NEET-PG questions of this format, this option is often the focus of chromosomal distinction. However, based on standard medical facts, all options provided are technically true. If this is a "single best answer" where one must be false, it usually hinges on a nuance: Complete moles are **paternal** in origin (androgenetic), whereas partial moles are triploid.* **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (Complete Mole):** Complete moles are **diploid (46,XX > 46,XY)**. They result from the fertilization of an "empty" egg (no maternal chromosomes) by one sperm that duplicates or two sperm. They lack fetal parts and have diffuse hydropic villi. * **Option B (Choriocarcinoma):** This is **true**. While choriocarcinoma can follow any pregnancy, it most commonly follows a hydatidiform mole (50%), followed by abortions (25%), and only rarely (25%) follows a **full-term pregnancy**. * **Option C (Management):** **Suction and evacuation** is the gold standard treatment for hydatidiform moles. It effectively removes the molar tissue regardless of uterine size. * **Option D (Imaging):** The **"Snowstorm appearance"** (multiple hypoechoic areas representing hydropic villi) on USG is the classic diagnostic hallmark of a complete mole. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Karyotype:** Complete Mole = 46,XX (Diploid, Paternal); Partial Mole = 69,XXX/XXY (Triploid, Maternal + Paternal). 2. **Fetal Parts:** Present in Partial Mole; Absent in Complete Mole. 3. **Theca Lutein Cysts:** Common in Complete Moles due to very high β-hCG levels. 4. **Malignant Potential:** Higher in Complete Moles (15–20%) compared to Partial Moles (<5%). 5. **Follow-up:** Weekly β-hCG monitoring until three consecutive normal values are obtained.

Question 155: Which of the following is NOT true regarding gestational trophoblastic neoplasia?

A. 13HCG is highly elevated in both forms of molar pregnancy (Correct Answer)
B. Classical symptoms are only seen with complete moles
C. The genotype is 46XX in the majority of complete moles
D. The genotype is 69XXY in the majority of incomplete moles

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Option A is the Correct Answer (The False Statement):** While hCG levels are elevated in both types of molar pregnancies, they are **markedly higher** (often >100,000 mIU/mL) primarily in **Complete Hydatidiform Moles (CHM)**. In **Partial (Incomplete) Moles (PHM)**, hCG levels are often only slightly elevated or even within the normal range for gestational age. Therefore, saying hCG is "highly elevated in both" is clinically inaccurate. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option B:** Classical symptoms (hyperemesis gravidarum, pre-eclampsia in the first trimester, and hyperthyroidism) are caused by excessively high hCG levels. Since these levels are characteristic of CHM, these symptoms are rarely seen in PHM. * **Option C:** The majority (approx. 90%) of complete moles have a **46,XX** karyotype, resulting from an "empty" egg fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its DNA (androgenetic monospermy). * **Option D:** Partial moles are triploid, most commonly **69,XXY** (approx. 70%), resulting from the fertilization of a normal ovum by two sperm (dispermy). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Snowstorm Appearance:** Classic ultrasound finding for Complete Mole. * **Fetal Parts:** Present in Partial Moles; absent in Complete Moles. * **p57 Expression:** Negative (absent) in Complete Moles (due to lack of maternal genome); Positive in Partial Moles. * **Theca Lutein Cysts:** Common in CHM due to high hCG; rare in PHM. * **Malignant Transformation:** Risk is higher in Complete Moles (15-20%) compared to Partial Moles (<5%).

Question 156: What is the recommended follow-up for a patient who has had a hydatidiform mole?

A. Serum Beta-hCG monitoring (Correct Answer)
B. Serum CEA level estimation
C. Serum amylase level
D. Serum alpha-fetoprotein estimation

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Serum Beta-hCG monitoring is correct:** Hydatidiform mole (a type of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease) arises from the abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue. These cells pathognomonically secrete **Beta-hCG**. Following suction evacuation, serial monitoring of Beta-hCG is the "gold standard" to ensure complete resolution and to detect early progression to **Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN)**. A plateau or rise in levels indicates persistent disease or malignancy. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Serum CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen):** This is a non-specific tumor marker primarily used for colorectal, gastrointestinal, and certain breast cancers. It has no role in trophoblastic disease. * **Serum Amylase:** This enzyme is a marker for pancreatic pathology (e.g., pancreatitis) or salivary gland issues. * **Serum Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP):** This is the marker for Yolk Sac tumors (Germ cell tumors) and Hepatocellular carcinoma. While germ cell tumors are gynecological, they are distinct from molar pregnancies. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Clinical Pearls:** * **Follow-up Protocol:** Monitor Beta-hCG **weekly** until three consecutive negative results (<5 mIU/mL) are obtained, then **monthly** for 6 months. * **Contraception:** Patients must use reliable contraception (preferably **OCPs**) during the entire follow-up period to avoid pregnancy, which would confound hCG interpretation. * **GTN Diagnosis (FIGO Criteria):** hCG levels plateau (±10%) for 4 readings over 3 weeks, or hCG levels rise (>10%) for 3 readings over 2 weeks. * **Most common site of metastasis:** The **lungs** (80%), followed by the vagina. A chest X-ray is often the first baseline investigation post-evacuation.

Question 157: What is the most common site of origin for squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix?

A. Endocervix
B. Ectocervix
C. Squamocolumnar junction (Correct Answer)
D. None of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Squamocolumnar Junction (SCJ)** is the most common site of origin for cervical squamous cell carcinoma because it contains the **Transformation Zone (TZ)**. This is a dynamic area where the columnar epithelium of the endocervix is constantly undergoing **squamous metaplasia** to become stratified squamous epithelium. These rapidly dividing, undifferentiated cells are highly susceptible to integration by high-risk Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types (16 and 18), leading to dysplasia and eventual malignancy. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Endocervix:** This is primarily lined by simple columnar epithelium. While it is the site of origin for *adenocarcinomas*, it is not the primary site for squamous cell carcinomas. * **B. Ectocervix:** This is lined by mature stratified squamous epithelium. While cancer can spread here, the initial neoplastic transformation rarely begins in these mature, stable cells. * **D. None of the above:** Incorrect, as the SCJ is the well-established anatomical landmark for cervical oncogenesis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Transformation Zone:** This is the area between the original SCJ and the new SCJ. It is the specific target for Pap smear sampling and colposcopic evaluation. * **Age-related shift:** The SCJ moves inward (cephalad) with age. In postmenopausal women, the SCJ is often located within the endocervical canal, making clinical visualization difficult. * **Most common type:** Squamous cell carcinoma accounts for approximately 75-80% of all cervical cancers. * **Screening:** The goal of a Pap smear is to sample cells specifically from the transformation zone to detect early dysplastic changes (CIN).

Question 158: What is the treatment of choice for sarcoma botryoides?

A. Surgical excision
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
D. Palliative therapy

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Sarcoma botryoides** (Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma) is a highly malignant tumor typically found in the vagina of infants and young children (usually <5 years). It classically presents as a "bunch of grapes" protruding from the introitus. **1. Why Chemotherapy is the Correct Answer:** Historically, this condition was treated with radical surgery (exenteration), which had poor outcomes and high morbidity. Modern management has shifted to a **multimodal approach** where **Chemotherapy is the primary treatment of choice**. The standard regimen is **VAC (Vincitine, Actinomycin-D, and Cyclophosphamide)**. Chemotherapy is highly effective at shrinking the tumor, allowing for subsequent conservative, fertility-sparing surgery rather than radical procedures. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Surgical Excision:** While surgery is often performed, it is no longer the *primary* or sole treatment of choice. It is usually secondary to chemotherapy to ensure negative margins while preserving organ function. * **Radiotherapy:** This is generally reserved for recurrent cases or when there is a poor response to chemotherapy and surgery, as radiation carries significant long-term risks for pediatric patients (e.g., growth impairment, secondary malignancies). * **Palliative Therapy:** This is incorrect because sarcoma botryoides is potentially curable with aggressive multimodal therapy. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Origin:** Arises from the **Stroma of the mucous membrane** (not the epithelium). * **Histology:** Look for the **Cambium layer** (a dense zone of undifferentiated cells beneath the epithelium) and **Rhabdomyoblasts** (strap or tadpole cells). * **Most Common Site:** Vagina in infants; Cervix in older women. * **Tumor Marker:** Desmin and Myogenin positivity on immunohistochemistry.

Question 159: What is the stage of carcinoma of the endometrium with invasion of 10 mm of the myometrium?

A. Stage Ia
B. Stage Ib (Correct Answer)
C. Stage IIa
D. Stage IIb

Explanation: **Explanation:** The staging of endometrial carcinoma is primarily surgical, based on the **FIGO 2023 (and 2009) classification**. The distinction between Stage Ia and Ib depends on the depth of myometrial invasion relative to the total thickness of the myometrium. 1. **Why Stage Ib is correct:** Stage Ib is defined as a tumor that invades **equal to or more than 50%** of the myometrium. In clinical scenarios where a specific measurement like "10 mm" is given, it is conventionally understood to represent deep invasion (unless the total myometrial thickness is specified as exceptionally large). In standard NEET-PG questions, invasion reaching the outer half of the myometrium is classified as Stage Ib. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Stage Ia:** This stage is limited to the endometrium or involves **less than 50%** of the myometrium. * **Stage II:** This stage involves the **cervical stromal invasion** but does not extend beyond the uterus. Stage II is no longer sub-divided into 'a' and 'b' in the most recent FIGO updates (though older versions distinguished between endocervical glandular involvement and stromal invasion). **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Staging System:** Endometrial cancer uses **Surgical Staging** (unlike Cervical Cancer, which was historically clinical but is now also surgical/radiological). * **Most Common Type:** Endometrioid adenocarcinoma (Type I) is the most common histological subtype, often associated with estrogen excess. * **Prognostic Factor:** The depth of myometrial invasion is one of the most significant predictors of lymph node metastasis and overall prognosis. * **FIGO 2023 Update:** Note that the 2023 criteria now incorporate histological grades and lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) into Stage I sub-classifications. However, for basic depth-based questions, the 50% rule remains the gold standard.

Question 160: A 35-year-old woman presents with postcoital bleeding and foul-smelling discharge. What is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

A. Endometrial aspiration
B. Dilatation and curettage
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. Cervical biopsy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **postcoital bleeding** and **foul-smelling discharge** in a 35-year-old woman is a classic "red flag" for **Cervical Cancer** until proven otherwise. In the context of a suspected cervical malignancy, the definitive diagnostic step is a **Cervical Biopsy**. * **Why Cervical Biopsy is correct:** Postcoital bleeding is the most specific clinical symptom of cervical cancer. While a Pap smear is a screening tool, a punch biopsy (directed by colposcopy if a lesion is not visible, or a direct wedge biopsy if a growth is present) provides the histopathological confirmation required for diagnosis and staging. * **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Endometrial aspiration, D&C, and Endometrial biopsy** are primary investigations for **Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (AUB)** or suspected **Endometrial Cancer**. These typically present as heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) or postmenopausal bleeding, rather than postcoital bleeding. * While cervical cancer can sometimes involve the endocervical canal, the symptoms described point directly to a cervical lesion rather than a primary uterine/endometrial pathology. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common symptom of Cervical Cancer:** Postcoital bleeding. * **Most common histological type:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC). * **Screening vs. Diagnosis:** Pap smear/HPV DNA testing is for **screening**; Colposcopy-directed biopsy is the **gold standard for diagnosis**. * **Staging:** Cervical cancer is staged **clinically** (FIGO staging), though the 2018 revision now allows for imaging and pathological findings where available.

Practice by Chapter

Cervical Cancer

Practice Questions

Endometrial Cancer

Practice Questions

Ovarian Cancer

Practice Questions

Vulvar and Vaginal Cancer

Practice Questions

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

Practice Questions

Screening for Gynecologic Cancers

Practice Questions

Principles of Gynecologic Oncology Surgery

Practice Questions

Radiation Therapy in Gynecologic Malignancies

Practice Questions

Chemotherapy in Gynecologic Oncology

Practice Questions

Palliative Care in Gynecologic Oncology

Practice Questions

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