Fertility and Infertility — MCQs

Fertility and Infertility Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 271: What is the procedure used in preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) to obtain cells from an embryo for genetic analysis before transferring it to the uterus during IVF?

A. Embryo cell biopsy (Correct Answer)
B. CVS
C. ICSI
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Embryo cell biopsy*** - **Embryo cell biopsy** is the procedure used to remove one or more cells from an early embryo (typically at the cleavage stage on day 3 or blastocyst stage on day 5) for genetic analysis in PGD. - The biopsied cells are then tested for **genetic abnormalities** using techniques like FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization), PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction), or Next Generation Sequencing (NGS). - This allows selection of chromosomally normal or unaffected embryos for transfer during IVF, preventing transmission of genetic disorders. *CVS* - **Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)** is a prenatal diagnostic procedure performed during an established pregnancy, typically between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation. - CVS involves obtaining placental tissue to test for genetic abnormalities in the fetus, but occurs **after implantation**, not before embryo transfer. *ICSI* - **Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)** is an assisted reproductive technique where a single sperm is directly injected into an oocyte to facilitate fertilization. - ICSI is a fertilization method, not a diagnostic procedure for detecting **genetic abnormalities** in embryos. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Embryo cell biopsy** is the established procedure used in PGD to obtain embryonic cells for subsequent genetic testing.

Question 272: In IVF, during cleavage stage embryo transfer, embryos are typically transferred back to uterine cavity at which cell stage?

A. 2
B. 2-4
C. 4-8 (Correct Answer)
D. 8-16

Explanation: ***4-8*** - **Cleavage stage embryo transfer** typically occurs on **day 3** after fertilization, when the embryo has divided into approximately **6-8 cells** (within the 4-8 cell range). - This stage is the **most common timing** for cleavage stage transfers in conventional IVF, chosen for transfer into the **uterine cavity** as it allows for adequate embryo assessment while mimicking natural progression toward implantation. - Day 3 transfers at this stage are preferred when blastocyst culture is not planned or available. *2* - An embryo with only 2 cells is at the **very early cleavage stage**, typically observed on **day 1** (approximately 24 hours) after fertilization. - Transferring at this early stage is **rarely done** in modern IVF practice as it provides insufficient time for embryo quality assessment and viability evaluation. *2-4* - A 2-4 cell stage embryo is typically seen on **day 2** after fertilization (approximately 48 hours). - While day 2 transfers can be performed, **day 3 transfers** (4-8 cell stage) are generally preferred for cleavage stage embryo transfer as they allow better morphological assessment and selection of viable embryos. *8-16* - An 8-16 cell embryo is typically seen on **day 4** and represents the **morula stage**, characterized by compaction of cells. - This stage is **beyond the typical cleavage stage transfer window** - embryos at this point would usually be cultured further to **blastocyst stage** (day 5-6) rather than transferred at the morula stage.

Question 273: What is the drug of choice (DOC) for medical management of ectopic pregnancy?

A. Actinomycin D
B. Methotrexate (Intramuscular) (Correct Answer)
C. Prostaglandin F2 alpha
D. Mifepristone

Explanation: ***Methotrexate (Intramuscular)*** - **Methotrexate** is the **drug of choice** for the medical management of **ectopic pregnancy** that meets specific criteria (e.g., hemodynamically stable, small unruptured ectopic mass, and absence of fetal cardiac activity). - It works by inhibiting **dihydrofolate reductase**, thereby interfering with **DNA synthesis** and cell proliferation of the rapidly dividing trophoblastic tissue. *Actinomycin D* - **Actinomycin D** is an **antineoplastic antibiotic** that is used in the treatment of various cancers, such as Wilms' tumor and gestational trophoblastic disease. - While it has anti-proliferative effects, it is not the standard first-line treatment for **ectopic pregnancy** given the effectiveness and established safety profile of methotrexate. *Prostaglandin F2 alpha* - **Prostaglandin F2 alpha** (e.g., dinoprost) is primarily used for **induction of labor**, **abortion**, or management of **postpartum hemorrhage** due to its myometrial contraction stimulation properties. - It does not specifically target the trophoblastic tissue of an ectopic pregnancy and is not indicated for its medical management. *Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** is an **anti-progestin** used to induce medical abortion, often in combination with misoprostol. - While it terminates intrauterine pregnancies by blocking progesterone receptors, it is not effective as a standalone treatment for **ectopic pregnancy**, as it does not directly target the ectopic trophoblastic tissue.

Question 274: In a case of recurrent spontaneous abortion, which of the following investigations is least indicated?

A. Thyroid function tests
B. Testing for TORCH infections (Correct Answer)
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies

Explanation: ***Testing for TORCH infections*** - While TORCH infections (Toxoplasmosis, Other [syphilis, parvovirus B19, varicella-zoster], Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex virus) can cause **spontaneous abortion**, they are **rarely a cause of recurrent spontaneous abortion**. - Recurrent infections are uncommon, making chronic or repeated TORCH infections an unlikely primary driver for multiple losses. *Hysteroscopy* - **Hysteroscopy** is often indicated to evaluate for **intrauterine structural abnormalities** such as septa, polyps, fibroids, or Asherman's syndrome, which can contribute to recurrent pregnancy loss. - These structural issues can interfere with implantation and uterine blood supply, leading to repeated abortions. *Thyroid function tests* - Both **hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism** are associated with an increased risk of recurrent spontaneous abortion. - **Thyroid hormone imbalances** can disrupt ovulation, implantation, and early fetal development. *Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies* - **Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)** is a significant and treatable cause of recurrent spontaneous abortion due to **thrombotic events** in the placental circulation. - Testing for lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin antibodies, and anti-beta-2 glycoprotein I antibodies is a **standard part of the workup** for recurrent pregnancy loss.

Question 275: An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next treatment of choice is?

A. Tuboplasty
B. Hydrotubation
C. Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
D. IVF (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***IVF*** - For **bilateral cornual tubal block**, In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is the most effective and often preferred treatment. It bypasses the blocked tubes entirely by fertilizing the egg outside the body. - This approach offers the highest success rates when tubal patency cannot be restored or in cases of severe tubal damage. *Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy* - While these procedures diagnose and treat various infertility causes, they are less effective for **bilateral cornual block**. - **Hysteroscopy** might be used to confirm the block or perform canalization, but the success rate for achieving pregnancy with this method is low. *Tuboplasty* - **Tuboplasty** refers to surgical repair of the fallopian tubes, which is generally not recommended for **cornual block**. - Success rates for achieving live birth after tuboplasty for cornual occlusion are very low, and it carries risks such as ectopic pregnancy. *Hydrotubation* - This procedure involves flushing the fallopian tubes with fluid and is primarily used for **mild distal tubal block** or as a diagnostic step with contrast medium to confirm patency. - It is unlikely to effectively resolve a **significant bilateral cornual block**, which requires more definitive intervention.

Question 276: Chlamydia trachomatis infection commonly causes: March 2004

A. Infertility (Correct Answer)
B. Malignancy
C. Amenorrhoea
D. Post coital bleeding

Explanation: ***Infertility*** - **Chlamydia trachomatis** is the **leading cause of preventable infertility** worldwide. - It commonly causes **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, which leads to **tubal scarring and blockage** of the fallopian tubes. - **Tubal damage** from PID is a major cause of female infertility and significantly increases the risk of **ectopic pregnancy**. - This is the **most common long-term complication** of chlamydial infection. *Amenorrhoea* - **Amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) is not a direct or common complication of **Chlamydia trachomatis** infection. - Chlamydia causes **local reproductive tract inflammation**, not hormonal disruption leading to amenorrhea. *Malignancy* - **Chlamydia trachomatis** is not linked to cervical or reproductive organ cancers. - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** is the primary infectious agent associated with cervical malignancy, not Chlamydia. *Post coital bleeding* - While **Chlamydia can cause cervicitis** with a friable cervix that may result in post-coital bleeding, this is **not the most common or significant complication**. - **Infertility** is far more common as a long-term consequence of untreated chlamydial infection, making it the best answer to what Chlamydia "commonly causes."

Question 277: Which of the following is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

A. History of infertility
B. All of the options (Correct Answer)
C. IUCD
D. Tubal endometriosis

Explanation: ***All of the options*** - **Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs)**, a history of **infertility**, and **tubal endometriosis** are all recognized risk factors for ectopic pregnancy. - These factors either interfere with normal tubal function and ovum transport or create an environment conducive to implantation outside the uterus. *IUCD* - While IUCDs are highly effective at preventing intrauterine pregnancies, they do not prevent ectopic pregnancies with the same efficacy, thus slightly *increasing the relative risk* of an ectopic pregnancy if a pregnancy does occur. - The presence of an IUCD can also induce a mild inflammatory reaction in the fallopian tubes, potentially impairing normal ciliary function and ovum transport. *History of infertility* - Many causes of infertility, such as **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, **endometriosis**, or previous **tubal surgery**, can damage the fallopian tubes and impair their ability to transport a fertilized egg to the uterus. - Infertility treatments, particularly those involving **assisted reproductive technologies (ART)**, can also increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy due to manipulation of gametes and embryos. *Tubal endometriosis* - **Endometriotic implants** within the fallopian tubes can cause structural damage, inflammation, scarring, and alterations in the tubal motility. - These changes can obstruct or slow the passage of a fertilized egg, leading to its implantation within the tube rather than the uterus.

Question 278: Which of the following is NOT an indication for hysterosalpingography?

A. Evaluate fallopian tube patency in infertility
B. Study uterine anomalies
C. Detect uterine synechiae
D. Detect endometriosis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Detect endometriosis*** - Hysterosalpingography (HSG) primarily visualizes the **uterine cavity** and **fallopian tubes**; it cannot directly detect endometrial implants outside the uterus. - **Laparoscopy** is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis, allowing direct visualization and biopsy of lesions. *Study uterine anomalies* - HSG is effective in outlining the shape and structure of the **uterine cavity**, making it useful for identifying congenital abnormalities like **septate** or **bicornuate uteri**. - It helps distinguish between different types of anomalies that can impact fertility or pregnancy outcomes. *Detect uterine synechiae* - **Intrauterine adhesions**, or synechiae (Asherman's syndrome), appear as filling defects or irregular contours within the endometrial cavity on an HSG. - The contrast medium outlines these adhesions, indicating areas where the uterine walls are abnormally fused. *Evaluate fallopian tube patency in infertility* - HSG is a standard diagnostic tool to assess whether the **fallopian tubes are open** (patent) or blocked, which is a common cause of infertility. - The spill of contrast medium into the peritoneal cavity indicates tubal patency, while absence of spill suggests **tubal obstruction**.

Question 279: Clomiphene citrate is primarily used for treating which condition in women?

A. Anovulation in women (Correct Answer)
B. Menorrhagia during puberty
C. Hormonal therapy for menopause
D. Infertility due to endometriosis

Explanation: ***Anovulation in women*** - **Clomiphene citrate** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that blocks estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, leading to increased **GnRH** pulsatility and subsequently increased **FSH** and **LH** release. - This surge in **gonadotropins** stimulates follicular development and ovulation, making it a primary treatment for **anovulatory infertility**. *Menorrhagia during puberty* - **Menorrhagia** (heavy menstrual bleeding) during puberty is often related to an **immature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis**, leading to anovulatory cycles. - While clomiphene induces ovulation, it is not the primary treatment for managing **menorrhagia** in adolescents; hormonal therapies like oral contraceptives or progestins are typically used. *Hormonal therapy for menopause* - **Menopause** is characterized by ovarian failure and a significant decline in estrogen production. - **Clomiphene** is used to stimulate ovulation, not to replace hormones or manage menopausal symptoms, which are typically treated with **hormone replacement therapy (HRT)**. *Infertility due to endometriosis* - **Endometriosis** causes infertility through various mechanisms including anatomical distortion, inflammation, and altered peritoneal fluid, which clomiphene does not directly address. - Treatment for **endometriosis-related infertility** often involves surgical removal of endometrial implants, assisted reproductive technologies, or hormonal suppression therapy.

Question 280: Which of the following is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

A. PID
B. Previous ectopic pregnancy
C. Barrier methods of contraception (e.g., condoms) (Correct Answer)
D. OCP (in cases of contraceptive failure)

Explanation: ***Barrier methods of contraception (e.g., condoms)*** - **Barrier methods** like condoms prevent fertilization entirely by blocking sperm-egg interaction - They do not alter tubal anatomy, tubal motility, or hormonal environment - Therefore, they are **NOT a risk factor** for ectopic pregnancy and represent the correct answer to this negation question *OCP (in cases of contraceptive failure)* - Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) **dramatically reduce the overall risk of all pregnancies**, including ectopic pregnancies - If contraceptive failure occurs, OCPs do not increase ectopic risk—they do not cause tubal damage or dysfunction - The parenthetical qualifier "(in cases of contraceptive failure)" in the option is medically imprecise; **OCPs themselves are NOT a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy** - Note: Some epidemiological studies show a higher **proportion** of ectopic among the rare pregnancies that occur on OCPs, but this is a statistical artifact, not a causal relationship *PID* - **Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)** is a **major established risk factor** for ectopic pregnancy - It causes inflammation, scarring, and adhesions of the **fallopian tubes** - This tubal damage impedes normal transport of the fertilized ovum to the uterus, leading to ectopic implantation - PID increases ectopic risk by 6-10 fold *Previous ectopic pregnancy* - A history of **previous ectopic pregnancy** is one of the **strongest risk factors** for recurrence - It indicates underlying tubal pathology (damage, dysfunction, or anatomical abnormality) - Recurrence risk is approximately **10-25%** in subsequent pregnancies - This reflects persistent tubal factors that predispose to abnormal implantation

Practice by Chapter

Reproductive Physiology

Practice Questions

Evaluation of the Infertile Couple

Practice Questions

Male Factor Infertility

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Female Factor Infertility

Practice Questions

Ovulatory Disorders

Practice Questions

Tubal and Peritoneal Factors

Practice Questions

Uterine Factors

Practice Questions

Unexplained Infertility

Practice Questions

Assisted Reproductive Technologies

Practice Questions

Psychological Aspects of Infertility

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