Endocrinology of Pregnancy Practice Questions

Q: What is the target range for fasting blood sugar in a pregnant diabetic female?

70-100 mg%. In pregnancy, maintaining strict glycemic control is vital to prevent maternal and fetal complications such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, and neonatal hypoglycemia. **Explanation of the Correct Answer (A):** The target fasting blood sugar (FBS) in pregnancy is lower than in non-pregnant individuals due to the physiological state of "accelerated starvation." The fetus continuously consumes maternal glucose, and there is increased insulin sensitivity in the first trimester, followed by insulin resistance later. According to the **American Diabetes Association (ADA)** and **ACOG** guidelines, the goal for FBS in a pregnant diabetic (GDM or Pre-gestational) is **<95 mg/dL** (often rounded to the **70-100 mg%** range in exams). This range ensures adequate glucose for the fetus while preventing the risks associated with maternal hyperglycemia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B (100-130 mg%):** This range is closer to the targets for non-pregnant adults. In pregnancy, these levels are associated with an increased risk of fetal macrosomia. * **C & D (130-190 mg%):** These levels represent significant hyperglycemia. Such high fasting levels are diagnostic of poorly controlled diabetes and significantly increase the risk of congenital anomalies (if in the first trimester) and stillbirth. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Target Postprandial (PP) Levels:** 1-hour PP should be **<140 mg/dL**; 2-hour PP should be **<120 mg/dL**. * **HbA1c Target:** Ideally **<6.0%** to minimize the risk of congenital malformations. * **DIPSI Criteria:** A single-step 75g glucose load is used for screening; a 2-hour value **≥140 mg/dL** is diagnostic of GDM. * **Drug of Choice:** Insulin remains the gold standard, though Metformin is increasingly used in specific clinical scenarios.

Q: Hirsutism may be seen in all the following disorders except?

Hypothyroidism. **Explanation:** Hirsutism is defined as the presence of terminal hair in females in a male-pattern distribution. It is primarily driven by an excess of circulating androgens or increased sensitivity of hair follicles to androgens. **Why Hypothyroidism is the correct answer:** Hypothyroidism is generally associated with **hair loss (alopecia)** and thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows (Queen Anne’s sign), rather than hirsutism. In fact, hypothyroidism leads to an increase in Sex Hormone-Binding Globulin (SHBG) clearance and a decrease in its production, but the clinical manifestation is typically menstrual irregularities (menorrhagia) and weight gain, not androgen excess. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **PCOS (Option D):** The most common cause of hirsutism. It involves functional ovarian hyperandrogenism and insulin resistance, which lowers SHBG, increasing free testosterone levels. * **Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (Option C):** Specifically the non-classic form (21-hydroxylase deficiency) leads to an accumulation of androgen precursors (like 17-OH progesterone), causing significant hirsutism and virilization. * **Cushing’s Syndrome (Option B):** Excess ACTH or cortisol leads to increased production of adrenal androgens (like DHEAS), resulting in hirsutism alongside classic features like moon facies and striae. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Ferriman-Gallwey Score:** Used to quantify hirsutism; a score of ≥8 is typically considered significant. * **Hyperprolactinemia:** Can occasionally cause mild hirsutism by stimulating the adrenal cortex to produce DHEAS. * **Drug-induced Hirsutism:** Common culprits include Danazol, Phenytoin, and Minoxidil (though Minoxidil technically causes generalized hypertrichosis). * **Rapid onset hirsutism + Virilization:** Always suspect an androgen-secreting tumor (ovarian or adrenal).

Q: What is the main function of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)?

Maintain the corpus luteum. **Explanation:** The primary and most critical function of **beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)** during early pregnancy is the **maintenance of the corpus luteum**. In a non-pregnant cycle, the corpus luteum degenerates after 14 days, leading to a drop in progesterone and subsequent menstruation. However, once fertilization occurs, the syncytiotrophoblast of the developing blastocyst secretes β-hCG. This hormone acts on the LH receptors of the corpus luteum, "rescuing" it and stimulating it to continue producing **progesterone**. This progesterone is vital for maintaining the endometrial lining and supporting the pregnancy until the placenta takes over steroidogenesis (the luteal-placental shift) at approximately 7–10 weeks of gestation. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Stimulate the decidua:** While progesterone (secreted by the corpus luteum) maintains the decidua, β-hCG does not act directly on it. * **C. Initiate implantation:** Implantation is a complex process involving adhesion molecules (integrins) and cytokines; β-hCG is produced *after* the initial stages of implantation have begun. * **D. Initiate breast growth:** Breast changes in pregnancy are primarily driven by estrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen (hPL), not β-hCG. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Doubling Time:** In a healthy intrauterine pregnancy, β-hCG levels double every **48–72 hours**. * **Peak Levels:** β-hCG reaches its peak concentration at **8–10 weeks** (approx. 100,000 mIU/mL) and then declines to a lower plateau. * **Structure:** It is a glycoprotein with an alpha and beta subunit. The **alpha subunit** is identical to LH, FSH, and TSH; the **beta subunit** is unique, which is why it is used for pregnancy testing. * **Thyroid Connection:** Due to its structural similarity to TSH, very high levels of β-hCG (as seen in molar pregnancies) can cause gestational hyperthyroidism.

Q: Which of the following is the drug of choice for pregnancy-induced hypertension?

Methyldopa. **Explanation:** **Methyldopa** is traditionally considered the **drug of choice** for managing chronic hypertension and pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) because of its long-standing safety profile. It is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that reduces sympathetic outflow. Its primary advantage is that it does not affect uteroplacental blood flow or fetal hemodynamics, and long-term follow-up studies have confirmed no adverse effects on the child's neurodevelopment. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Amlodipine:** While Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) like Nifedipine are frequently used (and often preferred for rapid control), Amlodipine is generally a second-line agent compared to Nifedipine or Labetalol in pregnancy. * **Losartan:** This is an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB). Both ARBs and ACE inhibitors are **strictly contraindicated** in pregnancy (Category D) as they cause fetal renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, and skull hypoplasia. * **Diuretics:** These are generally avoided in PIH because pregnancy is already a state of hemoconcentration. Diuretics can further decrease plasma volume, potentially compromising placental perfusion. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line agents for PIH:** Methyldopa (safest), Labetalol (fast-acting, widely used), and Nifedipine (oral). * **Acute Hypertensive Crisis in Pregnancy:** Intravenous **Labetalol** is the drug of choice; Hydralazine is an alternative. * **Drug to avoid:** ACE inhibitors, ARBs, Sodium Nitroprusside (cyanide toxicity), and Atenolol (fetal growth restriction). * **Magnesium Sulfate ($MgSO_4$):** This is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in Preeclampsia and treatment in Eclampsia, *not* for blood pressure control.

Q: The Priscilla White classification is used in which of the following conditions?

Gestational diabetes mellitus. **Explanation:** The **Priscilla White Classification** is a clinical tool used to categorize **Diabetes Mellitus in pregnancy**. It is highly significant because it assesses maternal risk and predicts fetal outcomes based on the age of onset, duration of the disease, and the presence of diabetic complications (vascular involvement). **Why Option C is Correct:** The classification distinguishes between **Gestational Diabetes (Class A)** and **Pregestational Diabetes (Classes B through T)**. * **Class A1:** Diet-controlled GDM. * **Class A2:** GDM requiring insulin or oral hypoglycemics. * **Classes B-T:** Represent pre-existing diabetes with increasing severity. For example, **Class F** denotes diabetic nephropathy, **Class R** denotes retinopathy, and **Class H** denotes ischemic heart disease. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A. Gestational Hypertension:** Classified by the NHBPEP/ACOG criteria into Preeclampsia, Eclampsia, Chronic Hypertension, and Gestational Hypertension. * **B. Cardiac Disorders:** Primarily classified using the **NYHA (New York Heart Association)** functional classification (Class I-IV) or the **Modified WHO (mWHO)** risk classification. * **D. Thyroid Disorders:** Diagnosed based on trimester-specific TSH and Free T4 levels; no specific "White-style" alphanumeric classification is used. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common** class in pregnancy: Class A (Gestational Diabetes). * **Worst prognostic factor** in White’s classification: **Class H** (Ischemic Heart Disease). * **Class T** refers to a patient who has undergone a **Renal Transplant**. * Remember: As the letter progresses further into the alphabet (B $\rightarrow$ T), the vascular complications increase and the fetal prognosis generally worsens.

Q: Which of the following is NOT typically seen in gestational diabetes mellitus?

Congenital malformations. **Explanation:** The distinction between **Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)** and **Pre-gestational (Pregestational) Diabetes** is a high-yield concept for NEET-PG. **Why Congenital Malformations is the Correct Answer:** Congenital malformations (like sacral agenesis or cardiac defects) occur during **organogenesis**, which takes place in the **first trimester** (weeks 3–8). By definition, GDM is glucose intolerance that develops or is first recognized in the **second or third trimester** (usually after 24 weeks), after organogenesis is complete. Therefore, GDM does not increase the risk of structural anomalies. If a woman diagnosed with "GDM" has a baby with malformations, she likely had undiagnosed Type 2 Diabetes prior to pregnancy. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & B (History of Macrosomia & Obesity):** These are classic **risk factors** for GDM. Maternal insulin resistance is exacerbated by adipose tissue, and a history of a baby >4kg suggests a previous state of unrecognized hyperglycemia. * **D (Polyhydramnios):** This is a common **complication** of GDM. Fetal hyperglycemia leads to fetal osmotic diuresis (increased fetal urination), which increases the volume of amniotic fluid. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common malformation in Pregestational DM:** Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD). * **Most specific malformation in Pregestational DM:** Caudal Regression Syndrome (Sacral Agenesis). * **Screening:** Best time to screen for GDM is **24–28 weeks** using the DIPSI or OGTT method. * **Macrosomia:** In GDM, the primary concern is fetal overgrowth due to maternal hyperglycemia causing fetal hyperinsulinemia (Pedersen Hypothesis).

Q: All of the following are true regarding renal changes in normal pregnancy EXCEPT:

Increase in serum bicarbonate levels.. **Explanation:** In normal pregnancy, the renal system undergoes significant physiological adaptations to accommodate the metabolic demands of the fetus and the mother. **Why Option C is the correct (False) statement:** Pregnancy is characterized by **chronic respiratory alkalosis** due to progesterone-induced hyperventilation (increased tidal volume). To compensate for this alkalosis, the kidneys increase the excretion of bicarbonate. Consequently, **serum bicarbonate levels decrease** (typically from 24–26 mEq/L to about 18–22 mEq/L) to maintain a near-normal blood pH. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A:** Due to the marked increase in GFR, the clearance of creatinine is enhanced. Therefore, normal serum creatinine levels in pregnancy are lower (0.4–0.8 mg/dL). A value of 0.9 mg/dL, while normal in non-pregnant adults, may indicate renal impairment in a pregnant patient. * **Option B:** Renal Plasma Flow (RPF) and Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) increase by approximately 40–50% starting early in the first trimester. This is driven by systemic vasodilation and increased cardiac output. * **Option D:** The placenta produces the enzyme **vasopressinase** (aminopeptidase), which degrades Arginine Vasopressin (AVP). In some cases, excessive production can lead to **Transient Gestational Diabetes Insipidus**, which typically resolves postpartum. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Glucosuria:** Common in pregnancy due to increased GFR and reduced tubular reabsorption of glucose; it does not necessarily indicate diabetes. * **Hydronephrosis:** Physiological dilation of the ureters and renal pelvis (Right > Left) occurs due to progesterone-induced smooth muscle relaxation and mechanical compression by the gravid uterus. * **Positioning:** GFR is highest in the lateral recumbent position and decreases when supine due to aortocaval compression.

Q: All of the following are true about cholestasis of pregnancy EXCEPT?

Bilirubin more than 5 mg%. **Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy (ICP)** is a reversible type of hormone-induced cholestasis occurring typically in the third trimester. It is characterized by the impairment of bile flow, leading to the accumulation of bile acids in the serum and skin. ### **Explanation of Options:** * **A. Bilirubin more than 5 mg% (Correct Answer):** In ICP, while serum bile acids are significantly elevated, jaundice is uncommon (occurring in only 10–20% of cases). Even when present, the total bilirubin levels are typically mild, rarely exceeding **2–5 mg/dL**. A bilirubin level >5 mg% should prompt a search for other causes like viral hepatitis or hemolytic disorders. * **B. Intense pruritus:** This is the hallmark clinical feature. It typically starts on the palms and soles, worsens at night, and occurs in the absence of a primary skin rash. * **C. SGPT, SGOT may be normal:** While transaminases (ALT/AST) are often elevated (up to 2–10 times the upper limit), they can remain within the normal range in mild or early cases. * **D. Increased alkaline phosphatase:** Serum ALP is characteristically elevated in ICP. However, it is a less specific marker because ALP levels naturally increase during pregnancy due to placental production. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Diagnosis:** The most sensitive and specific marker is **elevated Serum Bile Acids (>10 μmol/L)**. * **Treatment:** **Ursodeoxycholic Acid (UDCA)** is the drug of choice; it improves maternal symptoms and biochemical profiles. * **Fetal Risks:** ICP is associated with increased risks of **meconium-stained amniotic fluid, preterm labor, and sudden intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)**. * **Delivery Timing:** Due to the risk of stillbirth, delivery is usually recommended between **36 0/7 and 39 0/7 weeks**, depending on bile acid levels.

Q: Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in size during pregnancy?

Glioma. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **A. Glioma**. While pregnancy involves significant physiological and hormonal shifts, gliomas (intrinsic brain tumors) do not typically show a predictable pattern of growth or clinical worsening during gestation. In contrast, several other intracranial and soft tissue tumors are highly sensitive to the hormonal environment of pregnancy. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Pituitary Adenoma:** During pregnancy, the pituitary gland undergoes physiological hyperplasia (mainly lactotrophs). Existing macroadenomas can enlarge significantly due to high estrogen levels, potentially leading to visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia) or headaches. * **Meningioma:** These tumors frequently express **progesterone receptors**. The high levels of progesterone during pregnancy can cause rapid enlargement of meningiomas, often leading to the first presentation of symptoms or a sudden worsening of pre-existing neurological deficits. * **Neurofibroma:** Patients with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1) often experience an increase in the size and number of neurofibromas during pregnancy. This is attributed to increased vascularity and the presence of hormonal receptors within the tumors. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Meningioma & Progesterone:** Always remember the association between progesterone and meningioma growth; symptoms often regress postpartum as hormone levels drop. * **Choriocarcinoma:** If a patient presents with new-onset neurological deficits and a history of recent pregnancy/molar pregnancy, consider brain metastasis from choriocarcinoma. * **Prolactinoma Management:** In pregnant women with microprolactinomas, Bromocriptine is usually stopped, but they must be monitored clinically for signs of tumor expansion.

Question 1

What is the target range for fasting blood sugar in a pregnant diabetic female?

Accepted Answer

70-100 mg%

Answer

100-130 mg%

Answer

130-160 mg%

Answer

160-190 mg%

Question 2

Hirsutism may be seen in all the following disorders except?

Accepted Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Cushing's syndrome

Answer

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Answer

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 3

What is the main function of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)?

Accepted Answer

Maintain the corpus luteum

Answer

Stimulate the decidua

Answer

Initiate implantation

Answer

Initiate breast growth

Question 4

Which of the following is the drug of choice for pregnancy-induced hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Methyldopa

Answer

Amlodipine

Answer

Losartan

Answer

Diuretic

Question 5

The Priscilla White classification is used in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Gestational diabetes mellitus

Answer

Gestational hypertension

Answer

Cardiac disorders in pregnancy

Answer

Thyroid disorders of pregnancy

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT typically seen in gestational diabetes mellitus?

Accepted Answer

Congenital malformations

Answer

Previous history of a macrosomic baby

Answer

Obesity

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Question 7

All of the following are true regarding renal changes in normal pregnancy EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Increase in serum bicarbonate levels.

Answer

Serum creatinine decreases.

Answer

GFR and renal plasma flow increase by 50%.

Answer

Increased placental metabolism of AVP may cause transient diabetes insipidus during pregnancy.

Question 8

All of the following are true about cholestasis of pregnancy EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Bilirubin more than 5 mg%

Answer

Intense pruritus

Answer

SGPT, SGOT may be normal

Answer

Increased alkaline phosphatase

Question 9

Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in size during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Glioma

Answer

Pituitary adenoma

Answer

Meningioma

Answer

Neurofibroma

Question 10

What is the recommended treatment for a pregnant woman with epilepsy who is currently on phenytoin therapy?

Accepted Answer

Taper phenytoin to the lowest effective level and continue the pregnancy.

Answer

Terminate the pregnancy and continue phenytoin.

Answer

Replace phenytoin with carbamazepine.

Answer

Continue the pregnancy with phenytoin therapy.

Endocrinology of Pregnancy — MCQs

Endocrinology of Pregnancy — MCQs

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