Diabetes in Pregnancy — MCQs
A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?
The following cost-effective investigations are routinely recommended in the screening of antenatal mothers, EXCEPT:
Which of the following is false regarding management of diabetes in pregnancy?
What is the most common fetal complication associated with gestational diabetes?
A 28-year-old female, gravida 2, para 1, presents to the antenatal clinic at 24 weeks for a routine check-up. Ultrasonography shows a normal fetus for gestational age at 24 weeks of gestation in a frank breech position, with no other abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizures 32 hours after birth. The most probable cause would be?
A G1 P0 woman at 36 weeks presents with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes. What is the most appropriate initial management?
What maternal condition is commonly associated with congenital heart defects in the fetus?
All of these cause hyperglycemia except:
Overt diabetes in pregnancy is defined as fasting blood glucose more than what value?
Diabetes in Pregnancy Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A baby born at 34 weeks gestation weighs 3kg. Which of the following conditions is this child most likely to develop in the immediate postnatal period?
- A. APH
- B. Diabetes
- C. Anemia (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Anemia*** - Macrosomic babies (3kg at 34 weeks is **large for gestational age**) initially develop **polycythemia** due to chronic intrauterine hypoxia and increased erythropoiesis, but this is followed by rapid **hemolysis** and breakdown of excess red blood cells after birth, leading to anemia in the immediate postnatal period. - Among the given options, **anemia** is the most appropriate answer as it represents a recognized complication of LGA babies through the **polycythemia-hemolysis cycle**, even though **hypoglycemia** is statistically the most common immediate complication. *APH* - **Antepartum hemorrhage (APH)** is a maternal obstetric complication involving bleeding before delivery, not a condition that the baby itself develops or shows. - While APH can affect fetal growth and well-being, it is not a **neonatal condition** that the child would present with after birth. *Diabetes* - Although **maternal diabetes** is the most common cause of fetal macrosomia, the newborn does not develop diabetes itself in the immediate postnatal period. - Instead, these babies are at risk for **hypoglycemia**, **respiratory distress**, and **hyperbilirubinemia** due to fetal hyperinsulinemia, but not diabetes as a presenting condition. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **anemia** is indeed a valid condition that macrosomic babies can develop through the described polycythemia-hemolysis mechanism. - While other complications like **hypoglycemia** and **birth trauma** are more common, anemia remains a recognized sequela among LGA babies in the immediate postnatal period.
Question 2: The following cost-effective investigations are routinely recommended in the screening of antenatal mothers, EXCEPT:
- A. Blood sugar levels for GDM
- B. VDRL for syphilis
- C. Urine analysis for bacteriuria
- D. Echocardiography for cardiac disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Echocardiography for cardiac disease*** - **Echocardiography** is not a *routinely recommended* screening investigation for all antenatal mothers due to its cost and the relatively low prevalence of significant congenital heart disease requiring universal screening. - It is typically performed only if there are **specific risk factors** or suspicious findings suggesting cardiac pathology. *Blood sugar levels for GDM* - Screening for **gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** with blood sugar levels (e.g., glucose challenge test) is routinely recommended due to the potential maternal and fetal complications if untreated. - GDM is a common condition that can be effectively managed with early diagnosis, making screening a **cost-effective** preventive measure. *VDRL for syphilis* - Screening for **syphilis** using tests like VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) is a standard and *routinely recommended* antenatal investigation. - Early detection and treatment of syphilis in pregnant women prevent serious adverse outcomes such as **congenital syphilis**, which can cause severe fetal morbidity and mortality. *Urine analysis for bacteriuria* - **Urine analysis** for **asymptomatic bacteriuria** is routinely recommended during pregnancy because untreated bacteriuria can lead to pyelonephritis, preterm labor, and low birth weight. - It is a simple, **cost-effective** test with significant benefits for maternal and fetal health.
Question 3: Which of the following is false regarding management of diabetes in pregnancy?
- A. In active labor, if RBS <70 mg/dL, D5 is started at 100-150 ml/hr till the RBS is >70 mg/dL
- B. In a patient being planned for induction of labor, night dose of intermediate insulin is given as planned, and the morning dose is withheld
- C. Elective C-section has no role in reducing incidence of brachial plexus injury (Correct Answer)
- D. Capillary blood glucose monitoring levels are kept at fasting- 95 mg/dL; 1 hr postprandial- 140 mg/dL; 2 hrs postprandial- 120 mg/dL
Explanation: ***Elective C-section has no role in reducing incidence of brachial plexus injury*** - This statement is **false** because **elective C-section** can significantly reduce the incidence of **brachial plexus injury** (BPI), especially in cases of suspected fetal macrosomia. - While not universally recommended for all diabetic pregnancies, an elective C-section is considered when the estimated **fetal weight** is substantial or when there's a history of **shoulder dystocia** to prevent birth trauma. *In active labor, if RBS <70 mg/dL, D5 is started at 100-150 ml/hr till the RBS is >70 mg/dL* - This is a **correct** management strategy for **hypoglycemia in labor**. Maintaining stable blood glucose levels (above 70 mg/dL) is crucial to prevent adverse outcomes for both mother and fetus. - The administration of **D5 (dextrose 5% in water)** intravenous solution at a specific rate helps to quickly raise and maintain blood glucose levels. *In a patient being planned for induction of labor, night dose of intermediate insulin is given as planned, and the morning dose is withheld* - This is a common and generally **correct** practice for insulin management before **induction of labor**. The night dose of intermediate insulin helps maintain basal glucose levels overnight. - Withholding the morning dose prevents **hypoglycemia** during labor when food intake is restricted, and insulin sensitivity may increase. Glucose is then typically supplemented through IV fluids as needed. *Capillary blood glucose monitoring levels are kept at fasting- 95 mg/dL; 1 hr postprandial- 140 mg/dL; 2 hrs postprandial- 120 mg/dL* - These are the generally accepted and **correct** target blood glucose levels for **diabetes in pregnancy** (both pre-existing and gestational diabetes). - Achieving these targets is essential to minimize the risk of **fetal macrosomia**, **neonatal hypoglycemia**, and other adverse perinatal outcomes.
Question 4: What is the most common fetal complication associated with gestational diabetes?
- A. Only a small percentage of women with gestational diabetes develop overt diabetes.
- B. There is a risk of macrosomia in babies born to mothers with gestational diabetes. (Correct Answer)
- C. Gestational diabetes is usually diagnosed in the second or third trimester.
- D. Gestational diabetes can increase the risk of congenital malformations.
Explanation: ***There is a risk of macrosomia in babies born to mothers with gestational diabetes.*** - **Macrosomia** (birth weight >4000g or >90th percentile) is a common complication due to fetal exposure to high glucose levels, stimulating excessive growth. - Increased fetal insulin from maternal hyperglycemia promotes fat accumulation and growth, leading to **shoulder dystocia**, birth trauma, and increased risk of C-section. *Only a small percentage of women with gestational diabetes develop overt diabetes.* - A significant percentage, up to **50% of women** with gestational diabetes, will develop **type 2 diabetes** later in life, often within 5-10 years postpartum, making this statement incorrect. - This persistent risk highlights the importance of postpartum screening and lifestyle modifications for these women. *Gestational diabetes is usually diagnosed in the second or third trimester.* - While screening typically occurs between **24 and 28 weeks of gestation** (second trimester), this describes when it is diagnosed, not the *most common risk* associated with the condition itself. - Early screening may occur in the first trimester for high-risk individuals, but the general screening period is later in pregnancy. *Gestational diabetes can increase the risk of congenital malformations.* - **Congenital malformations** are primarily associated with **pre-existing diabetes** (type 1 or type 2 diabetes) in the mother during the **first trimester**, when organogenesis occurs. - Gestational diabetes, diagnosed later in pregnancy, primarily leads to complications related to **fetal growth** and metabolic issues, not structural malformations.
Question 5: A 28-year-old female, gravida 2, para 1, presents to the antenatal clinic at 24 weeks for a routine check-up. Ultrasonography shows a normal fetus for gestational age at 24 weeks of gestation in a frank breech position, with no other abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Glucose challenge test with 50 gm of glucose (Correct Answer)
- B. ECV
- C. Immediate LSCS
- D. Culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation: ***Glucose challenge test with 50 gm of glucose*** - The patient is 24 weeks pregnant, and a **glucose challenge test** is routinely performed between **24 and 28 weeks of gestation** to screen for gestational diabetes. - This screening is appropriate irrespective of fetal presentation, as it addresses a common and treatable pregnancy complication. *Culture for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis* - While screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like **gonorrhea** and **chlamydia** is important during pregnancy, it is typically performed at the **first prenatal visit** or during the **third trimester** for high-risk patients. - There is no indication from the provided information (e.g., risk factors, symptoms) to warrant this specific test at 24 weeks over routine gestational diabetes screening. *ECV* - **External cephalic version (ECV)** is a procedure to change a breech baby to a head-down position, usually performed closer to term, often around **36-37 weeks of gestation**. - At 24 weeks, a **frank breech position** is common and many fetuses will spontaneously turn to a cephalic presentation before term, making ECV premature at this stage. *Immediate LSCS* - **Immediate lower segment cesarean section (LSCS)** is a major surgical procedure indicated for obstetrical emergencies or planned for specific conditions late in pregnancy. - A **frank breech position** at 24 weeks with no other abnormalities is a normal variant and does not necessitate immediate delivery; many fetuses will spontaneously turn.
Question 6: A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizures 32 hours after birth. The most probable cause would be?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia (Correct Answer)
- C. Birth asphyxia
- D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
Explanation: ***Hypocalcemia*** - In infants of diabetic mothers (IDM), hypocalcemia typically presents at **24-72 hours of life**, making it the most probable cause of seizures at 32 hours. - The mechanism involves **functional hypoparathyroidism** secondary to maternal hyperparathyroidism and **hypomagnesemia**, which impairs parathyroid hormone secretion and action. - IDMs have increased metabolic demands and altered calcium homeostasis due to intrauterine metabolic disturbances. - **Timing is key**: The presentation at 32 hours strongly favors hypocalcemia over hypoglycemia in the differential diagnosis. *Hypoglycemia* - While hypoglycemia is indeed common in IDMs due to **fetal hyperinsulinemia**, it typically occurs much earlier—within the **first 2-24 hours of life** (peak at 1-3 hours). - By 32 hours, hypoglycemia would usually have been detected through routine monitoring or would have manifested earlier with symptoms. - Neonatal hypoglycemia causes seizures, but the **timing in this case makes it less likely** than hypocalcemia. *Birth asphyxia* - Birth asphyxia leads to hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy with seizures typically presenting within the **first 12-24 hours**. - Would be accompanied by other neurological signs like hypotonia, altered consciousness, and poor feeding from birth. - No history suggesting birth complications is provided in the scenario. *Intraventricular hemorrhage* - IVH is primarily a complication of **prematurity**, particularly in very low birth weight infants. - This 3.8 kg baby is likely term or large-for-gestational-age, making IVH uncommon unless significant birth trauma occurred. - IVH presents with acute neurological deterioration, bulging fontanelle, and altered consciousness—not mentioned here.
Question 7: A G1 P0 woman at 36 weeks presents with newly diagnosed gestational diabetes. What is the most appropriate initial management?
- A. Induction of labor
- B. Oral hypoglycemics
- C. Diet control (Correct Answer)
- D. Insulin
Explanation: ***Diet control (Medical Nutrition Therapy)*** - For newly diagnosed gestational diabetes, **lifestyle modifications**, primarily **dietary changes**, are the **first-line treatment** per ACOG and ADA guidelines - Medical nutrition therapy (MNT) aims to control blood glucose levels through proper nutrition and should be attempted for **1-2 weeks** before considering pharmacologic interventions - Target goals: Fasting glucose <95 mg/dL, 1-hour postprandial <140 mg/dL, 2-hour postprandial <120 mg/dL *Induction of labor* - **Induction of labor** is typically considered for gestational diabetes if there are concerns about **fetal macrosomia** (EFW >4000-4500g), **poor glycemic control despite treatment**, or other maternal-fetal complications - Generally considered at **39-40 weeks** in well-controlled GDM or earlier with complications - Not the initial management for a new diagnosis at 36 weeks without additional concerning features *Oral hypoglycemics* - **Metformin** or **glyburide** may be used as second-line agents when **dietary management fails** to achieve adequate glycemic control after 1-2 weeks - Metformin is increasingly preferred as it does not cross the placenta as readily as glyburide - They are **not the initial step** in management *Insulin* - **Insulin therapy** is indicated when **dietary modifications alone** are insufficient in maintaining target blood glucose levels - Also preferred if oral agents are contraindicated or fail to achieve glycemic targets - Represents a **secondary intervention** when primary non-pharmacological methods are inadequate
Question 8: What maternal condition is commonly associated with congenital heart defects in the fetus?
- A. ACE inhibitor
- B. GDM
- C. Pregestational DM (Correct Answer)
- D. Valproate
Explanation: ***Pregestational DM*** - **Pre-existing diabetes** in the mother is a significant risk factor for various **congenital anomalies**, including **congenital heart defects**, due to suboptimal glycemic control during early embryogenesis. - Poorly controlled **maternal hyperglycemia** leads to increased oxidative stress and altered cellular metabolism in the developing fetus, impacting cardiovascular development. *ACE inhibitor* - **ACE inhibitors** are teratogenic, primarily causing **renal dysfunction** (e.g., renal tubular dysplasia, oligohydramnios, anuria) and **fetal growth restriction**, especially when used in the second and third trimesters. - While they can have adverse fetal effects, their association with **congenital heart defects** is less pronounced compared to other teratogenic exposures. *GDM* - **Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** typically develops in the second or third trimester when major organogenesis is complete, making its association with **structural congenital anomalies**, including heart defects, significantly lower than pregestational diabetes. - GDM is more commonly associated with fetal **macrosomia**, **hypoglycemia**, and respiratory distress syndrome at birth. *Valproate* - **Valproate** is a known teratogen associated with a specific pattern of anomalies, most notably **neural tube defects** (e.g., spina bifida), and facial dysmorphisms. - While it can be associated with an increased risk of some congenital heart defects, its primary and most significant fetal risk is **neural tube defects**.
Question 9: All of these cause hyperglycemia except:
- A. Catecholamines
- B. Insulin (Correct Answer)
- C. Cortisol
- D. GH
Explanation: ***Insulin*** - Insulin's primary function is to **lower blood glucose levels** by facilitating glucose uptake into cells and promoting glycogen synthesis. - It counters the effects of hormones that elevate blood sugar, directly leading to a **decrease in hyperglycemia**. *Catecholamines* - **Catecholamines** (e.g., epinephrine, norepinephrine) increase blood glucose by promoting **glycogenolysis** and **gluconeogenesis**. - They also **inhibit insulin secretion**, further contributing to elevated blood sugar. *Cortisol* - **Cortisol** is a **glucocorticoid** that raises blood glucose by increasing **gluconeogenesis** and reducing peripheral **glucose utilization**. - It can also decrease insulin sensitivity, leading to **hyperglycemia**. *GH* - **Growth hormone (GH)** can induce **insulin resistance** in peripheral tissues, which leads to reduced glucose uptake. - It also promotes **gluconeogenesis**, both contributing to elevated blood glucose levels.
Question 10: Overt diabetes in pregnancy is defined as fasting blood glucose more than what value?
- A. ≥200 mg/dl
- B. ≥100 mg/dl
- C. ≥180 mg/dl
- D. ≥126 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***≥126 mg/dl*** - A fasting plasma glucose level of **126 mg/dL or higher** is diagnostic of diabetes in the general population, which applies to overt diabetes in pregnancy. - This threshold indicates significant **hyperglycemia** and requires immediate management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. *≥200 mg/dl* - A fasting glucose level **≥200 mg/dL** is indicative of severe hyperglycemia, but the diagnostic threshold for diabetes is lower, at 126 mg/dL. - While this value would certainly confirm diabetes, it is not the *minimum* threshold for diagnosis. *≥100 mg/dl* - A fasting glucose level between **100 mg/dL and 125 mg/dL** is categorized as **impaired fasting glucose** (prediabetes), not overt diabetes. - This value suggests a risk for developing diabetes but does not meet the diagnostic criteria for diabetes itself. *≥180 mg/dl* - While a fasting glucose level of **180 mg/dL or higher** is clearly indicative of diabetes, it is not the lowest value that defines overt diabetes. - The diagnostic threshold for diabetes is established at **126 mg/dL**, making this value simply an even higher indication of the condition.
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