Endocrinology of Pregnancy — MCQs
On this page
Which of the following statements regarding Turner syndrome is false?
A 21-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea, absent breast development, and cubitus valgus. What is the most probable diagnosis?
In Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD), which of the following drugs is NOT used for infertility management?
Which of the following findings is diagnostic of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) based on the 75g Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) as per NICE 2015 criteria?
Which of the following statements about prolactinoma in pregnancy is FALSE?
A pregnant patient in her second trimester experiences syncope during the extraction of upper molars. In what position should she be kept?
All of the following are true about pseudocyesis except:
At which day of gestation is the maximum level of beta-hCG observed?
The decidual space is obliterated by which week of gestation?
Supine hypotension is characteristic of which stage of pregnancy?
Endocrinology of Pregnancy Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements regarding Turner syndrome is false?
- A. The occurrence of Turner syndrome is influenced by advanced maternal age. (Correct Answer)
- B. Most patients present with primary amenorrhea.
- C. Most patients exhibit short stature.
- D. Edema of the hands and feet is a significant feature during infancy.
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Option A is the Correct (False) Statement:** Unlike Trisomies (such as Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, or Patau syndrome), which are primarily caused by maternal meiotic non-disjunction and are strongly linked to **advanced maternal age**, Turner syndrome (45,XO) is an exception. It is usually caused by the loss of the paternal sex chromosome during spermatogenesis or post-zygotic errors. Therefore, the incidence of Turner syndrome is **sporadic** and is **not influenced by maternal age.** **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option B (Primary Amenorrhea):** This is a classic feature. Due to accelerated oocyte atresia, the ovaries are replaced by fibrous tissue (**streak ovaries**), leading to hypergonadotropic hypogonadism and a failure to start menstruation. * **Option C (Short Stature):** This is the most consistent clinical finding (seen in >95% of cases), primarily due to the haploinsufficiency of the **SHOX gene** located on the X chromosome. * **Option D (Infantile Edema):** Congenital lymphedema of the hands and feet is a hallmark neonatal presentation, caused by abnormal development of the lymphatic system. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Karyotype:** 45,XO is the most common (50%), but mosaics (e.g., 45,X/46,XX) may present with secondary amenorrhea or even pregnancy. * **Cardiac Association:** Bicuspid aortic valve (most common) and Coarctation of the aorta. * **Renal Association:** Horseshoe kidney. * **Screening:** Increased Nuchal Translucency (NT) and cystic hygroma on ultrasound. * **Management:** Growth Hormone (for height) and Estrogen/Progesterone (for secondary sexual characteristics).
Question 2: A 21-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea, absent breast development, and cubitus valgus. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Turner's syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
- C. Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome
- D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical triad of **primary amenorrhea**, **absent secondary sexual characteristics** (no breast development), and **skeletal deformities** (cubitus valgus) is a classic presentation of **Turner’s Syndrome (45,XO)**. 1. **Why Turner’s Syndrome is correct:** In Turner’s syndrome, accelerated atresia of germ cells leads to **streak ovaries**. The resulting lack of estrogen causes a failure of breast development (Tanner Stage 1) and primary amenorrhea. Cubitus valgus (increased carrying angle of the elbow) is a characteristic skeletal stigmata of this condition, along with short stature and webbed neck. 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **MRKH Syndrome:** These patients have a 46,XX karyotype with normal ovarian function. Therefore, they have **normal breast development** and secondary sexual characteristics, despite having primary amenorrhea due to Müllerian agenesis. * **Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS):** These patients (46,XY) have **well-developed breasts** (due to peripheral conversion of testosterone to estrogen) but lack pubic/axillary hair and have a blind-ending vagina. * **Mixed Gonadal Dysgenesis:** While it can present with short stature, it typically presents with **ambiguous genitalia** and a mosaic karyotype (45,X/46,XY), which is not described here. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common karyotype:** 45,XO (50%). * **Most common cardiac lesion:** Bicuspid aortic valve (overall); Coarctation of aorta (classic association). * **Most common renal anomaly:** Horseshoe kidney. * **Hormonal Profile:** Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (High FSH/LH, Low Estrogen). * **Management:** Growth hormone for stature; Estrogen/Progesterone for secondary sexual characteristics and bone health.
Question 3: In Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD), which of the following drugs is NOT used for infertility management?
- A. Clomiphene
- B. Tamoxifen
- C. Spironolactone (Correct Answer)
- D. Testosterone
Explanation: **Explanation:** In Polycystic Ovary Disease (PCOD), infertility is primarily due to **chronic anovulation** caused by hormonal imbalances. The goal of infertility management is to induce ovulation. **Why Spironolactone is the Correct Answer:** Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic with potent **anti-androgenic properties**. It works by blocking androgen receptors and inhibiting 5-alpha reductase. While it is highly effective for treating clinical symptoms of hyperandrogenism like **hirsutism and acne**, it is **contraindicated** in infertility management. This is because it can cause feminization of a male fetus (teratogenicity) and does not induce ovulation. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Clomiphene Citrate:** Traditionally the first-line Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) used for **ovulation induction** in PCOD. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, increasing GnRH pulse frequency and FSH levels. * **Tamoxifen:** Another SERM often used as an alternative to Clomiphene for ovulation induction, especially in patients who do not respond to Clomiphene or have a thin endometrium. * **Testosterone:** While it seems counterintuitive, **low-dose transdermal testosterone** is sometimes used as a "pre-treatment" (priming) in poor responders to improve follicular sensitivity to FSH, though it is less common in standard PCOD protocols compared to Letrozole or Clomiphene. *(Note: In the context of this MCQ, Spironolactone is the definitive 'wrong' drug due to its anti-fertility effects).* **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of Choice (DOC):** Currently, **Letrozole** (an Aromatase Inhibitor) has replaced Clomiphene as the first-line agent for ovulation induction in PCOD due to higher live birth rates and lower risk of multiple pregnancies. * **Metformin:** Used as an adjuvant to improve insulin sensitivity but is no longer recommended as a standalone first-line agent for ovulation. * **Spironolactone Warning:** Always ensure a patient is on reliable contraception before starting Spironolactone for hirsutism.
Question 4: Which of the following findings is diagnostic of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) based on the 75g Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) as per NICE 2015 criteria?
- A. Fasting blood glucose > 5.1 mmol/L
- B. Fasting blood glucose > 7.0 mmol/L
- C. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 5.6 mmol/L (Correct Answer)
- D. 2-hour post-prandial OGTT > 5.8 mmol/L
Explanation: **Explanation:** The diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) varies globally based on the criteria used (NICE, IADPSG/WHO, or DIPSI). According to the **NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) 2015 guidelines**, GDM is diagnosed if a woman has either: 1. **Fasting plasma glucose (FPG) ≥ 5.6 mmol/L** (100 mg/dL) 2. **2-hour plasma glucose ≥ 7.8 mmol/L** (140 mg/dL) **Analysis of Options:** * **Option C (Correct):** A fasting value of **≥ 5.6 mmol/L** is the specific threshold defined by NICE. This reflects an inability of the maternal pancreas to maintain euglycemia during the fasting state despite the physiological insulin resistance of pregnancy. * **Option A:** 5.1 mmol/L is the fasting threshold used by **IADPSG and WHO (2013)** criteria, not NICE. * **Option B:** 7.0 mmol/L is the threshold for diagnosing **Pre-gestational (Type 2) Diabetes** in the general population or during the first trimester. * **Option D:** 5.8 mmol/L is significantly lower than any diagnostic threshold for a 2-hour OGTT; the NICE threshold is 7.8 mmol/L. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **DIPSI Criteria (Common in India):** Uses a non-fasting 75g OGTT. A 2-hour value **≥ 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)** is diagnostic, regardless of the last meal. * **IADPSG/WHO Criteria:** Fasting ≥ 5.1 mmol/L, 1-hr ≥ 10.0 mmol/L, or 2-hr ≥ 8.5 mmol/L (Only one abnormal value is needed). * **Screening Time:** Usually performed between **24–28 weeks** of gestation when insulin resistance (mediated by Human Placental Lactogen) peaks.
Question 5: Which of the following statements about prolactinoma in pregnancy is FALSE?
- A. Prolactinoma is the most common pituitary tumor but is rarely symptomatic during pregnancy.
- B. Increased prolactin levels during pregnancy indicate a worse prognosis. (Correct Answer)
- C. Macroadenomas greater than 1 cm are associated with a poorer prognosis.
- D. Regular visual checkups are recommended for patients with prolactinoma during pregnancy.
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Why Option B is the correct (False) statement:** During pregnancy, the maternal pituitary gland undergoes physiological hyperplasia, primarily due to estrogen-induced stimulation of lactotrophs. This leads to a **physiological rise in serum prolactin levels** (often 10-fold). Because this increase occurs in all pregnant women, serial monitoring of prolactin levels is **not clinically useful** to track tumor growth or predict prognosis. A high prolactin level does not necessarily correlate with tumor enlargement or a worsening clinical state during gestation. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** Prolactinomas are indeed the most common pituitary adenomas. While they can enlarge, they are **rarely symptomatic** in pregnancy (symptomatic enlargement occurs in <3% of microadenomas and ~15-30% of macroadenomas). * **Option C:** Size matters. **Macroadenomas (>1 cm)** have a significantly higher risk of clinically significant expansion and optic chiasm compression compared to microadenomas (<1 cm). * **Option D:** Because of the risk of suprasellar extension and compression of the optic chiasm, **regular visual field testing** (and clinical monitoring for headaches) is the gold standard for surveillance, rather than blood tests. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of Choice:** **Bromocriptine** is preferred over Cabergoline if treatment is required during pregnancy due to more extensive safety data. * **Management:** Dopamine agonists are usually **discontinued** once pregnancy is confirmed unless the tumor is a macroadenoma threatening the optic chiasm. * **Imaging:** If symptomatic enlargement is suspected, **MRI without gadolinium** is the imaging modality of choice. * **Breastfeeding:** It is **not contraindicated** in women with prolactinomas.
Question 6: A pregnant patient in her second trimester experiences syncope during the extraction of upper molars. In what position should she be kept?
- A. Trendelenburg position
- B. Head down towards her feet
- C. Right lateral position
- D. Left lateral position (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation The correct answer is **D. Left lateral position.** **1. Why Left Lateral Position is Correct:** The patient is experiencing **Supine Hypotension Syndrome** (also known as Aortocaval Compression Syndrome). In the second and third trimesters, the gravid uterus is large enough to compress the **Inferior Vena Cava (IVC)** and the abdominal aorta when the patient lies flat (supine). Compression of the IVC leads to decreased venous return to the heart, resulting in reduced cardiac output, hypotension, and syncope. Placing the patient in the **left lateral position** (or tilting the right hip 15–30 degrees) shifts the uterus off the IVC, restoring venous return and stabilizing maternal blood pressure. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Trendelenburg Position (A) & Head down (B):** While these positions are traditionally used to increase cerebral blood flow in non-pregnant patients, in pregnancy, they can worsen the situation. The weight of the uterus would push further against the diaphragm (compromising respiration) and continue to compress the IVC, failing to resolve the underlying cause of the syncope. * **Right Lateral Position (C):** While better than lying flat, the IVC is located on the right side of the vertebral column. Turning to the right may still result in partial compression of the vessel compared to the left side. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Facts:** * **Aortocaval Compression:** Occurs most significantly after **20 weeks** of gestation. * **Clinical Presentation:** Pallor, bradycardia, sweating, nausea, and hypotension when supine. * **Management of Cardiac Arrest in Pregnancy:** If a pregnant woman (over 20 weeks) requires CPR, **Manual Left Uterine Displacement (LUD)** is mandatory to ensure effective chest compressions and cardiac output. * **Dental Procedures:** Pregnant patients should ideally be treated in a semi-reclined position with a wedge under the right hip to prevent syncope.
Question 7: All of the following are true about pseudocyesis except:
- A. Abdominal enlargement
- B. Patient is pregnant (Correct Answer)
- C. Labor pains at the expected date of delivery
- D. Amenorrhea
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Pseudocyesis** (False Pregnancy) is a rare psychosomatic disorder where a non-pregnant woman exhibits classic signs and symptoms of pregnancy. **Why Option B is the correct answer:** The defining feature of pseudocyesis is that the **patient is NOT pregnant**. Despite the presence of physical symptoms, there is no conception, no fetus, and pregnancy tests (hCG) are negative. It is often rooted in a deep-seated psychological desire for or fear of pregnancy, leading to a breakdown in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Abdominal enlargement):** This is a common physical finding. It is usually caused by the deposition of fat, gaseous distension of the bowel, or "abdominal muscle guarding" (lordosis). Interestingly, the enlargement often disappears under general anesthesia. * **Option C (Labor pains):** Patients often experience "spurious labor" at the expected date of delivery due to the intense psychological conviction of being pregnant. * **Option D (Amenorrhea):** Hormonal disturbances (increased LH and prolactin, decreased FSH) often lead to menstrual irregularities or complete amenorrhea, further reinforcing the patient's belief in the pregnancy. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Hormonal Profile:** Typically shows elevated levels of **Prolactin** and **LH**, with low levels of **FSH**. * **Diagnosis:** Confirmed by a negative urine/serum hCG and an empty uterus on ultrasound. * **Couvade Syndrome:** A related condition where the male partner of a pregnant woman experiences sympathetic pregnancy symptoms (weight gain, nausea). * **Treatment:** The primary management is **psychiatric counseling** and psychotherapy, rather than hormonal intervention.
Question 8: At which day of gestation is the maximum level of beta-hCG observed?
- A. 6 weeks
- B. 9 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. 28 weeks
- D. 36 weeks
Explanation: **Explanation:** Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is a glycoprotein hormone secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast. It is essential for maintaining the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone to support the pregnancy until the placenta takes over (luteal-placental shift). **Why 9 weeks is correct:** The levels of beta-hCG rise exponentially following implantation. In a normal pregnancy, the concentration doubles approximately every 48 hours. The **peak levels (maximum concentration)** are typically reached between **8 to 11 weeks** of gestation (mean peak at 60–70 days or roughly 9 weeks), reaching values of up to 100,000 mIU/mL. After this peak, levels decline to a lower, stable plateau for the remainder of the pregnancy. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **6 weeks:** At this stage, hCG levels are still in the rapid rising phase and have not yet reached their maximum concentration. * **28 weeks & 36 weeks:** By the third trimester, hCG levels have already declined to a steady state (nadir), which is approximately 10–20% of the peak value. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Detection:** hCG can be detected in maternal serum 8–9 days after fertilization and in urine by 14 days. * **Structure:** It shares a common **alpha subunit** with TSH, LH, and FSH. The **beta subunit** is unique and specific for pregnancy testing. * **Clinical Significance of Abnormal Levels:** * **Higher than expected:** Multiple pregnancy, Molar pregnancy (Hydatidiform mole), or Down syndrome. * **Lower than expected:** Ectopic pregnancy or impending miscarriage. * **Nadir:** The lowest level after the peak is reached at approximately 16–20 weeks.
Question 9: The decidual space is obliterated by which week of gestation?
- A. 10th week
- B. 12th week
- C. 18th week
- D. 16th week (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **16th week (Option D)**. **Medical Concept:** During early pregnancy, the endometrium (now called the decidua) is divided into three functional layers: 1. **Decidua basalis:** The part underlying the implantation site (forms the maternal component of the placenta). 2. **Decidua capsularis:** The layer covering the expanding conceptus. 3. **Decidua parietalis (vera):** The layer lining the remainder of the uterine cavity. As the fetus and amniotic sac grow, the **decidua capsularis** expands outward until it comes into contact with the **decidua parietalis**. By the **16th week** of gestation, the increasing pressure of the growing products of conception causes these two layers to fuse. This fusion leads to the total obliteration of the uterine cavity (decidual space). **Analysis of Options:** * **10th week (A):** The gestational sac is still relatively small, and a significant space remains between the capsularis and parietalis. * **12th week (B):** While the uterus becomes an abdominal organ at this stage, the fusion process is underway but not yet complete. * **18th week (C):** By this time, the decidual space has already been obliterated for approximately two weeks. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Decidua:** The specialized endometrium of pregnancy, characterized by "decidualization" (stromal cells becoming large and lipid-rich under progesterone influence). * **Arias-Stella Reaction:** Hypersecretory changes in endometrial glands seen in pregnancy (and ectopic pregnancy) that can mimic malignancy. * **Nitabuch’s Layer:** A zone of fibrinoid degeneration where the trophoblast meets the decidua; it prevents overly deep placental invasion (absent in placenta accreta).
Question 10: Supine hypotension is characteristic of which stage of pregnancy?
- A. First trimester
- B. Second trimester
- C. Third trimester (Correct Answer)
- D. Twin pregnancy
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Supine Hypotension Syndrome** (also known as Aortocaval Compression) occurs when the gravid uterus compresses the **Inferior Vena Cava (IVC)** and the aorta while the patient is lying flat on her back. 1. **Why Third Trimester is Correct:** This phenomenon is most characteristic of the **third trimester** because the uterus has reached a sufficient size and weight (usually after 28 weeks) to physically obstruct venous return. Compression of the IVC leads to decreased preload, reduced cardiac output, and a subsequent drop in maternal blood pressure, causing symptoms like dizziness, nausea, and syncope. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **First Trimester:** The uterus is still a pelvic organ and is too small to compress the major abdominal vessels. * **Second Trimester:** While the uterus is growing, it rarely possesses enough mass to cause significant symptomatic compression in most singleton pregnancies until the very end of this period. * **Twin Pregnancy:** While a twin pregnancy increases the risk and severity of supine hypotension due to excessive uterine volume, the question asks for the **stage** of pregnancy. The physiological hallmark remains the third trimester, regardless of fetal number. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Management:** The immediate treatment is the **Left Lateral Position**, which shifts the uterus off the IVC, restoring venous return. * **Aortic Compression:** While IVC compression causes maternal hypotension, compression of the **Aorta** can lead to reduced placental perfusion and fetal distress, even if maternal BP remains stable (Poseiro effect). * **Collateral Circulation:** In most women, the azygos vein and vertebral venous plexuses compensate for the obstruction, which is why only about 10% of pregnant women are clinically symptomatic.
Practice by Chapter
Endocrine Changes in Normal Pregnancy
Practice Questions
Thyroid Disorders in Pregnancy
Practice Questions
Diabetes in Pregnancy
Practice Questions
Adrenal Disorders in Pregnancy
Practice Questions
Pituitary Disorders in Pregnancy
Practice Questions
Hyperemesis Gravidarum
Practice Questions
Hormonal Regulation of Labor
Practice Questions
Pharmacokinetics of Hormones in Pregnancy
Practice Questions
Fetal Endocrine Development
Practice Questions
Placental Hormones
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free