Contraception and Family Planning — MCQs

Contraception and Family Planning Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 631: All of the following can be used in first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), except

A. Manual vacuum aspiration
B. Dilatation and curettage
C. Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate (Correct Answer)
D. Mifepristone + misoprostol

Explanation: ***Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate*** - **Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate** is a method primarily used for **second-trimester** pregnancy terminations. - Its mechanism involves causing inflammation and contraction of the uterus, which is less effective and carries higher risks in the first trimester. *Manual vacuum aspiration* - **Manual vacuum aspiration (MVA)** is a common and effective surgical method for **first-trimester MTP**. - It involves using a syringe and cannula to remove the uterine contents directly. *Dilatation and curettage* - **Dilatation and curettage (D&C)** is another standard surgical procedure used for **first-trimester MTP**. - It involves dilating the cervix and using a curette to scrape the uterine lining and remove the pregnancy tissue. *Mifepristone + misoprostol* - The combination of **mifepristone and misoprostol** is the most common and effective medical method for **first-trimester MTP**. - **Mifepristone** blocks progesterone, while **misoprostol** causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening, expelling the pregnancy.

Question 632: Which of the following is not a long-acting reversible contraceptive method?

A. Combined oral contraceptives (Correct Answer)
B. Implanon
C. Copper T
D. Depo-Provera injection

Explanation: ***Combined oral contraceptives*** - While effective, **combined oral contraceptives** require daily adherence and are not typically classified as long-acting due to their need for frequent, consistent administration. - Their mechanism involves **exogenous hormones** that suppress ovulation and thicken cervical mucus, but their contraceptive effect relies on continuous daily intake. *Implanon* - **Implanon** (etonogestrel implant) is a **subdermal contraceptive implant** that provides effective contraception for up to three years. - It works by slowly releasing progestin, making it a **long-acting reversible contraceptive (LARC)**. *Copper T* - The **Copper T intrauterine device (IUD)** is a non-hormonal LARC that can prevent pregnancy for **up to 10 years**. - It acts by creating an inflammatory reaction in the uterus that is toxic to sperm and eggs, preventing fertilization. *Depo-Provera injection* - The **Depo-Provera injection** (medroxyprogesterone acetate) is a progestin-only contraceptive given every **3 months**. - While it offers extended protection, it is **not universally classified as a LARC** by major guidelines (WHO, ACOG, CDC), which typically reserve this designation for IUDs and implants that do not require regular clinic visits.

Question 633: 'Cafeteria approach' is related with:

A. Diet program
B. National vector borne disease control programme
C. Child and maternal health
D. Contraception (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Contraception*** - The **cafeteria approach** in contraception refers to offering a wide variety of **contraceptive methods** to individuals, allowing them to choose the option that best suits their needs, preferences, and circumstances. - This approach promotes **informed choice** and adherence by recognizing that no single contraceptive method is ideal for everyone. *Diet program* - While diet programs involve choices, the term **cafeteria approach** is not specifically or exclusively associated with the methodology of diet selection. - Diet programs typically focus on dietary guidelines or meal plans rather than a broad offering of methods. *National vector borne disease control programme* - This program focuses on managing and preventing **vector-borne diseases** through public health interventions, which does not involve individual "choices" in a cafeteria-style manner. - Its strategies include surveillance, vector control, and case management, without a direct "cafeteria approach" element. *Child and maternal health* - This broad field encompasses various health interventions, but the **cafeteria approach** is not a specific methodology used to describe comprehensive child and maternal health services. - While choices are involved in healthcare, this term is not standard in this context.

Question 634: A newly married couple, the woman is having irregular menstruation. What is the contraceptive of choice?

A. Barrier method
B. Calendar method
C. OCP (Correct Answer)
D. Progesterone only pills

Explanation: ***OCP*** - **Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs)** are a highly effective method that also help regulate **menstrual cycles** due to their hormonal content. - They provide effective contraception while simultaneously addressing the symptom of **irregular menstruation** in a newly married woman. *Barrier method* - **Barrier methods** like condoms are effective for contraception but do not address or regulate irregular menstrual cycles. - Their effectiveness depends heavily on consistent and correct use with each act of intercourse. *Calendar method* - The **calendar method** relies on tracking the menstrual cycle to predict fertile windows and is unreliable with **irregular menstruation**. - It would be ineffective as a contraceptive for a woman with unpredictable cycle lengths, leading to a high risk of unintended pregnancy. *Progesterone only pills* - **Progesterone-only pills** (POPs) can be used for contraception, but they may cause or exacerbate **menstrual irregularities**. - While effective in preventing pregnancy, they do not offer the cycle-regulating benefits that combination OCPs do for women with irregular periods.

Question 635: After a normal delivery, when can combined oral contraceptives be started for a non-breastfeeding mother?

A. Immediately after delivery
B. 6 weeks (Correct Answer)
C. 2 weeks
D. 12 weeks

Explanation: ***6 weeks*** - For **non-breastfeeding mothers**, combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are most safely initiated at **6 weeks postpartum** according to WHO Medical Eligibility Criteria. - At 6 weeks postpartum, the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)** has returned to baseline, making this the safest timing (WHO MEC Category 1 - no restriction). - This timing balances both safety and effective contraception for mothers not breastfeeding. *Immediately after delivery* - Starting COCs immediately postpartum significantly increases the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)** due to the hypercoagulable state after delivery. - This timing is contraindicated for combined hormonal methods (WHO MEC Category 3-4). *2 weeks* - At 2 weeks (14 days) postpartum, the VTE risk remains elevated in the early postpartum period. - Combined hormonal contraceptives are generally not recommended before 3 weeks (21 days) postpartum for non-breastfeeding women. - This timing does not meet standard safety guidelines. *12 weeks* - While 12 weeks postpartum is medically safe for initiating COCs, it is unnecessarily delayed. - This extended waiting period increases the risk of unintended pregnancy when effective contraception could be safely provided earlier at 6 weeks.

Question 636: Absolute contraindication of IUCD is?

A. Previous history of abortion
B. Acute PID (Correct Answer)
C. Breast cancer
D. PCOD

Explanation: ***Acute PID*** - **Acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)** is an absolute contraindication for IUCD insertion because the device can potentially worsen the existing infection or spread it further into the uterus and fallopian tubes. - Inserting an IUCD in the presence of acute PID significantly increases the risk of serious complications, including **sepsis** and **infertility**. *Previous history of abortion* - A **previous history of abortion** is generally not an absolute contraindication for IUCD insertion; rather, it may be a relative contraindication depending on factors such as the recency of the abortion or presence of infection risks. - IUCDs can be safely inserted after an abortion if there are no signs of infection and the uterus has involuted sufficiently. *Breast cancer* - **Breast cancer** is primarily a contraindication for **hormonal contraceptives** (like hormonal IUCDs) due to the potential estrogen or progestin sensitivity of certain cancers. - However, **copper IUCDs** (which are non-hormonal) are generally safe to use in patients with a history of breast cancer. *PCOD* - **Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** is not a contraindication for IUCD insertion; in fact, hormonal IUCDs can sometimes be beneficial in managing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding associated with PCOS. - IUCDs do not interfere with the underlying pathophysiology of PCOS.

Question 637: Highest Contraceptive failure is reported in

A. Implant
B. IUD
C. Oral contraceptive pills
D. Spermicidal methods (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Spermicidal methods*** - **Spermicides** have a significantly higher failure rate compared to other contraceptive methods because their effectiveness relies heavily on **correct and consistent application** before each act of intercourse. - Their efficacy is often compromised by improper use, short duration of action, or failure to adequately kill sperm, leading to a higher chance of **unintended pregnancy**. *Implant* - Contraceptive **implants** (e.g., etonogestrel implant) are among the most effective contraceptive methods, with a very low failure rate due to **continuous hormone release**. - They offer **long-acting reversible contraception (LARC)**, eliminating user error upon insertion. *IUD* - **Intrauterine devices (IUDs)**, both hormonal and copper, are highly effective LARC methods with very low failure rates. - Their effectiveness is independent of user adherence after insertion, making them **highly reliable**. *Oral contraceptive pills* - **Oral contraceptive pills** are effective when used perfectly, but their typical use effectiveness is lower than implants or IUDs due to the possibility of **user error**, such as missing pills. - **Adherence** to a daily regimen is crucial for their efficacy.

Question 638: A woman comes after 96 hours post coitus. Best contraceptive of choice is?

A. Progesterone only pills
B. OCP
C. IUCD (Correct Answer)
D. Mifepristone

Explanation: ***IUCD*** - An **intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD)** can be inserted up to **5 days (120 hours)** after unprotected intercourse or within 5 days of the earliest estimated ovulation. - It is the **most effective form of emergency contraception**, offering approximately **99% efficacy**. - Provides **immediate ongoing contraception** after insertion, making it the optimal choice at 96 hours post-coitus. *Progesterone only pills* - **Progesterone-only emergency contraceptive pills** (e.g., levonorgestrel) are most effective when taken within **72 hours (3 days)** of unprotected intercourse. - At **96 hours**, their efficacy is **significantly reduced**, making them suboptimal compared to IUCD. *OCP* - **Combined oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)** used for emergency contraception (Yuzpe method) are less effective and have more side effects than other emergency contraceptive methods. - Their effectiveness also significantly declines after **72 hours** post-coitus. *Mifepristone* - **Mifepristone** is an **anti-progestin** that can be used for emergency contraception within **120 hours (5 days)** of unprotected intercourse. - While effective within this timeframe at **96 hours**, the **IUCD remains superior** due to its higher efficacy (>99% vs ~98%) and provision of ongoing contraception.

Question 639: A 10-week pregnant woman presents for termination of pregnancy. What is the best method of abortion?

A. Misoprostol + mifepristone
B. Methotrexate and misoprostol
C. Dilatation and curettage
D. Vacuum aspiration (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Vacuum aspiration*** - **Vacuum aspiration (Manual or Electric)** is considered the **gold standard surgical method** for first-trimester abortion (up to 12-14 weeks of gestation). - It involves removing the uterine contents using a **suction catheter**, typically performed as an outpatient procedure under local anesthesia. - **Advantages**: Higher success rate (>99%), immediate completion, shorter procedure time, and lower ongoing bleeding compared to medical methods. - At **10 weeks**, vacuum aspiration is highly effective and is the preferred surgical option. *Misoprostol + mifepristone* - This combination is the **standard medical abortion regimen** and is highly effective up to 10-12 weeks (WHO guidelines support up to 12 weeks). - **Success rate at 10 weeks: ~95-98%**, which is excellent but slightly lower than surgical methods. - While this is a valid and commonly used option at 10 weeks, it involves a **longer process** (several hours to days), more bleeding, cramping, and requires follow-up to confirm completion. - **For exam purposes**, when comparing "best" method at 10 weeks, vacuum aspiration is preferred due to higher efficacy and immediate completion. *Methotrexate and misoprostol* - **Methotrexate** combined with misoprostol is less commonly used for abortion compared to mifepristone-based regimens. - This combination has a **longer duration of action** (5-7 days or more) and **lower efficacy** compared to mifepristone + misoprostol. - Generally reserved for **very early pregnancies** (<7 weeks) or specific clinical situations; not the preferred regimen at 10 weeks. *Dilatation and curettage* - **D&C** is an older surgical method involving cervical dilation and scraping the uterine lining with a sharp curette. - **Vacuum aspiration has largely replaced D&C** for routine first-trimester abortion due to lower risk of complications (perforation, cervical injury, incomplete evacuation). - D&C may still be used for incomplete abortion or retained products of conception but is not the first-line method.

Question 640: Use of OCPs is known to protect against the following malignancies except:

A. Colorectal carcinomas
B. Carcinoma cervix (Correct Answer)
C. Ovarian carcinoma
D. Endometrial carcinoma

Explanation: ***Carcinoma cervix*** - While oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) offer protection against some cancers, they are **not protective against cervical cancer**. - In fact, long-term use of OCPs is considered a **risk factor for cervical cancer**, especially in conjunction with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. *Colorectal carcinomas* - OCP use has been consistently associated with a **reduced risk of colorectal cancer**. - The protective effect is thought to be mediated by various hormonal mechanisms, including their impact on **bile acid metabolism** and **estrogen receptors in the colon**. *Ovarian carcinoma* - OCPs provide significant and **long-lasting protection against ovarian cancer**. - This protective effect is believed to be due to the **suppression of ovulation**, thereby reducing the continuous trauma and repair of the ovarian epithelium. *Endometrial carcinoma* - OCPs are known to offer substantial **protection against endometrial cancer**. - The progestin component in combined OCPs effectively **counteracts the proliferative effects of estrogen** on the endometrium, reducing the risk of hyperplasia and subsequent cancer.

Practice by Chapter

Natural Family Planning Methods

Practice Questions

Barrier Methods

Practice Questions

Hormonal Contraceptives

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Devices

Practice Questions

Emergency Contraception

Practice Questions

Permanent Contraception Methods

Practice Questions

Contraception in Special Populations

Practice Questions

Contraceptive Counseling

Practice Questions

Side Effects and Complications of Contraceptives

Practice Questions

Future Contraceptive Technologies

Practice Questions

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