Contraception and Family Planning — MCQs

Which of the following is/are required for a registered medical practitioner to qualify for performing Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), as per revised rules of MTP Act? 1. Certified for assisting at least 25 MTP in an authorized centre 2. Diploma or degree in Obstetrics and Gynaecology 3. House surgeon training for 6 months in Obstetrics and Gynaecology 4. Certified training for 6 months in laparoscopic surgeries Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q624

Which one of the following is the most commonly used surgical method/technique of female sterilization as recommended by Government of India?

Q625

Which one of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of Mini pill?

Q626

Contraindications for insertion of IUDs are all EXCEPT:

Q627

Indications for removal of IUDs are all EXCEPT:

Q628

What is the pathophysiological mechanism behind the increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease with intrauterine device (IUD) insertion?

Q629

A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with chlamydial cervicitis. Her partner refuses evaluation and treatment. What is the most appropriate approach to partner management?

Q630

A pregnant lady delivers a healthy baby via normal delivery. What is the earliest time at which an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) can be inserted?

Contraception and Family Planning Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 621: Which one of the following statements regarding contraception is NOT true?

A. Copper T can be inserted just after delivery
B. Implanon is a hormonal contraceptive
C. Copper T can be used as post coital contraception
D. Vaginal ring is a barrier method (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Vaginal ring is a barrier method*** - The **vaginal ring** (e.g., NuvaRing) is a **hormonal contraceptive** that releases estrogen and progestin, not a barrier method. - Its mechanism of action involves **inhibiting ovulation** and altering cervical mucus, unlike barrier methods that physically block sperm. *Copper T can be inserted just after delivery* - The **Copper T (IUD)** can be safely inserted immediately after delivery, ideally within **48 hours**, as a **postpartum IUD insertion**. - This timing is often preferred as the cervix is still dilated, and the woman is already in a healthcare setting. *Implanon is a hormonal contraceptive* - **Implanon** (now Nexplanon) is indeed a **hormonal contraceptive**, containing etonogestrel, a progestin. - It is an implantable rod that provides **long-acting reversible contraception (LARC)** for up to three years. *Copper T can be used as post coital contraception* - The **Copper T IUD** is highly effective as **emergency contraception** when inserted within **5 days** of unprotected intercourse. - It works by preventing fertilization or implantation, making it more effective than emergency contraceptive pills.

Question 622: Which one of the following IUDs is associated with a low pregnancy rate (0.2 per 100), less number of ectopic pregnancies and lower menstrual blood loss?

A. Cu T-380A
B. ML-Cu 375
C. LNG-20 (Mirena) (Correct Answer)
D. Progestasert

Explanation: ***LNG-20 (Mirena)*** - This **levonorgestrel-releasing IUD** (Mirena) has a very low pregnancy rate (0.2 per 100 women-years). - It significantly **reduces menstrual blood loss** and cramps and is associated with a lower risk of ectopic pregnancies compared to copper IUDs because it thins the endometrial lining, making implantation less likely. *Cu T-380A* - The **Cu T-380A copper IUD** has a slightly higher pregnancy rate (around 0.6-0.8 per 100 women-years) compared to Mirena. - It is known to **increase menstrual blood loss** and dysmenorrhea, which is contrary to the question's criteria. *ML-Cu 375* - The **Multiload Cu 375** is another type of copper IUD, with a pregnancy rate similar to or slightly higher than the TCu-380A. - Like other copper IUDs, it typically **increases menstrual flow** and may worsen menstrual pain. *Progestasert* - **Progestasert** was an early progesterone-releasing IUD that had a higher failure rate and a shorter lifespan (1 year) compared to newer LNG-IUDs. - While it aimed to reduce menstrual blood loss, its **overall efficacy and duration of action** were inferior to the LNG-20 system.

Question 623: Which of the following is/are required for a registered medical practitioner to qualify for performing Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), as per revised rules of MTP Act? 1. Certified for assisting at least 25 MTP in an authorized centre 2. Diploma or degree in Obstetrics and Gynaecology 3. House surgeon training for 6 months in Obstetrics and Gynaecology 4. Certified training for 6 months in laparoscopic surgeries Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
D. 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - As per the **MTP (Amendment) Act 2021 and Rules**, a registered medical practitioner (RMP) can perform MTP if they meet **any one** of the following qualifications: - Assisted at least **25 MTPs** in an authorized center - Hold a **diploma or degree in Obstetrics and Gynaecology** - Completed **house surgeon training for 6 months** in Obstetrics and Gynaecology in a recognized institution - All three statements (1, 2, and 3) represent valid pathways for qualification under the MTP Act, making this the correct answer. *2 only* - While a **diploma or degree in Obstetrics and Gynaecology** is indeed a valid qualification, it is not the *only* pathway recognized by the MTP Act. - Other pathways including practical experience (25 MTPs) and house surgeon training are equally valid qualifications. *1 only* - Assisting at least **25 MTPs** in an authorized center is a valid standalone qualification under the MTP Act. - However, this option is incorrect because statements 2 and 3 are also valid qualifications, not just statement 1 alone. *1, 2 and 4* - **Certified training for 6 months in laparoscopic surgeries** is **not a requirement** for performing MTP under the MTP Act. - While surgical skills are valuable, laparoscopic surgery training is not specifically mandated for MTP qualification, which primarily involves medical and surgical abortion procedures that don't necessarily require laparoscopic techniques.

Question 624: Which one of the following is the most commonly used surgical method/technique of female sterilization as recommended by Government of India?

A. Madlener technique
B. Uchida technique
C. Irving method
D. Pomeroy's method (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Pomeroy's method*** - **Pomeroy's method** involves creating a loop of the fallopian tube, ligating its base, and excising the looped segment, which is a highly effective and widely used surgical sterilization technique. - This method is the **most commonly recommended by the Government of India** for female sterilization under the national family planning program, typically performed via minilaparotomy (minilap) approach. - It is preferred due to its **simplicity, high efficacy, and low complication rates**, making it particularly suitable for resource-constrained settings and large-scale implementation in India. *Madlener technique* - The **Madlener technique** involves crushing and ligating a loop of the fallopian tube without excising any segment, making it less robust and potentially leading to higher recanalization rates. - This method is generally considered less effective compared to techniques that involve segment excision or destruction, hence it is not the most commonly recommended. *Uchida technique* - The **Uchida technique** involves injecting a sclerosing solution into the fallopian tube and then excising a portion of the tube, aiming to induce extensive fibrosis and prevent recanalization. - While effective, it is a more complex procedure than Pomeroy's method, requiring specialized training and materials, making it less suitable for widespread adoption as a primary method in national programs. *Irving method* - The **Irving method** involves ligating and transecting the fallopian tube, then burying the proximal stump into the broad ligament and the distal stump under the serosa, creating multiple barriers to recanalization. - This technique is highly effective but is considered more technically demanding and time-consuming than Pomeroy's method, which limits its widespread use as the go-to sterilization method in public health programs.

Question 625: Which one of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of Mini pill?

A. Breast feeding (Correct Answer)
B. Pregnancy
C. Thromboembolic disease
D. History of breast cancer

Explanation: ***Breastfeeding*** - **Mini-pills**, which contain only progestin, are **safe for use during breastfeeding** as they do not significantly affect milk production or infant health. - They are often the **preferred hormonal contraceptive** for nursing mothers. - WHO Category 1 (no restriction) for breastfeeding women. *Pregnancy* - **Pregnancy** is a **contraindication** for any hormonal contraceptive, including the mini-pill. - The purpose of contraception is to **prevent pregnancy**, making its presence a clear reason not to start or continue the method. - WHO Category 4 (unacceptable health risk). *Thromboembolic disease* - **History of thromboembolic disease is NOT an absolute contraindication** for progestin-only pills (mini-pills). - Unlike combined oral contraceptives that contain estrogen, **mini-pills do not significantly increase the risk of thrombosis** as they lack the estrogen component responsible for clotting effects. - WHO Category 2 (advantages generally outweigh risks) for history of VTE. - This makes mini-pills a **safer alternative** for women with previous thromboembolism who need hormonal contraception. *History of breast cancer* - A **history of breast cancer** is a **contraindication** for hormonal contraceptives, including mini-pills, because steroid hormones can promote the growth of hormone-sensitive cancers. - Current breast cancer: WHO Category 4; past breast cancer with no evidence of disease for 5 years: WHO Category 3. - Alternative non-hormonal contraception methods are recommended in such cases.

Question 626: Contraindications for insertion of IUDs are all EXCEPT:

A. During cesarean section (Correct Answer)
B. Trophoblastic disease
C. Suspected pregnancy
D. Severe dysmenorrhea

Explanation: ***During cesarean section*** - Immediate post-placental IUD insertion during cesarean section is **safe and effective** with proper technique and uterine assessment - This timing improves continuation rates by avoiding a separate office visit - WHO and ACOG guidelines support this practice, making it **NOT a contraindication** *Trophoblastic disease* - Gestational trophoblastic disease is a **contraindication** due to increased risk of uterine perforation - IUD insertion can mask disease recurrence and interfere with hCG monitoring - Must wait until complete resolution and hCG normalization *Suspected pregnancy* - IUD insertion in a pregnant uterus can cause **miscarriage, infection, or perforation** - Pregnancy must be **ruled out** before insertion - This is an **absolute contraindication** *Severe dysmenorrhea* - **Copper IUDs** are relatively contraindicated as they can worsen menstrual cramps and bleeding - However, **levonorgestrel-releasing IUDs (LNG-IUS)** are actually therapeutic for dysmenorrhea - As a general contraindication listing (without specifying IUD type), severe dysmenorrhea is traditionally considered a contraindication primarily for copper IUDs

Question 627: Indications for removal of IUDs are all EXCEPT:

A. Pregnancy with IUD
B. Flaring up of salpingitis
C. Perforation of uterus
D. Cyclical menstrual bleeding (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cyclical menstrual bleeding*** - **Normal cyclical menstrual bleeding** is an expected physiological event and not an indication for IUD removal. - While IUDs can alter menstrual patterns (e.g., heavier or lighter bleeding), typical cyclical bleeding that is not excessively heavy, painful, or prolonged usually does not warrant removal. *Pregnancy with IUD* - If a **pregnancy occurs with an IUD in situ**, especially in the first trimester, the IUD should ideally be removed to reduce the risk of spontaneous abortion, preterm labor, or infection. - Removal is especially crucial if the strings are visible and accessible; if not, close monitoring is necessary. *Flaring up of salpingitis* - **Salpingitis (pelvic inflammatory disease - PID)** is a serious infection that can be exacerbated or initiated by the presence of an IUD, particularly during insertion or in individuals with pre-existing infections. - A confirmed or suspected flare-up of salpingitis necessitates IUD removal to control the infection and prevent further complications like infertility or ectopic pregnancy. *Perforation of uterus* - **Uterine perforation** is a serious complication that can occur during IUD insertion and requires immediate removal of the device. - Depending on the extent of perforation, it may lead to pain, hemorrhage, infection, or damage to surrounding organs.

Question 628: What is the pathophysiological mechanism behind the increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease with intrauterine device (IUD) insertion?

A. Inhibition of local immune responses by copper
B. Introduction of vaginal bacteria during insertion procedure (Correct Answer)
C. Direct trauma to endometrial tissue
D. Enhancement of bacterial adhesion by IUD string

Explanation: ***Introduction of vaginal bacteria during insertion procedure*** - The **insertion process itself** can introduce bacteria from the vagina and cervix into the uterine cavity, leading to an **ascending infection**. - This risk is primarily associated with the **first 2-3 weeks post-insertion**, after which the risk significantly decreases and is not directly related to the IUD's presence. *Inhibition of local immune responses by copper* - **Copper IUDs** actually induce a **local inflammatory response** in the endometrium, which is part of their contraceptive mechanism. - This inflammation helps to prevent sperm survival and ovum implantation, rather than inhibiting immune responses. *Direct trauma to endometrial tissue* - While insertion can cause minor trauma, this **trauma itself does not directly cause PID** but rather provides a potential entry point for bacteria if disinfection protocols are not meticulously followed. - The risk of infection is primarily from the introduction of bacteria rather than the tissue damage. *Enhancement of bacterial adhesion by IUD string* - Although the **IUD string** could theoretically serve as a pathway for bacteria, studies have not definitively shown it to be a significant independent risk factor for PID beyond the initial insertion period. - The primary risk factor is the **bacterial translocation during the insertion procedure**, not ongoing bacterial ascent via the string.

Question 629: A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with chlamydial cervicitis. Her partner refuses evaluation and treatment. What is the most appropriate approach to partner management?

A. Counsel patient on condom use only
B. Withhold treatment until partner presents
C. Provider referral through health department
D. Expedited partner therapy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Expedited partner therapy*** - **Expedited Partner Therapy (EPT)** is the evidence-based, internationally recommended approach for partner management when partners refuse evaluation and treatment for **chlamydia** and **gonorrhea**. - EPT involves providing **antibiotic medication** directly to the partner without clinical examination, ensuring immediate treatment and preventing **reinfection** of the index patient and reducing community transmission. *Provider referral through health department* - While **contact tracing** through health departments is valuable for STI control, it may be **time-consuming** and less effective when partners actively refuse treatment. - This approach relies on **persuasion** rather than direct treatment provision, potentially allowing continued transmission during the delay period. *Counsel patient on condom use only* - **Condom counseling** alone does not address the **current chlamydial infection** in the partner, leaving them untreated. - The infected partner can **reinfect** the patient even with condom use due to potential inconsistent usage or condom failure. *Withhold treatment until partner presents* - Withholding treatment is **medically inappropriate** and can lead to serious complications including **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, chronic pelvic pain, and **infertility**. - The index patient requires **immediate antibiotic treatment** regardless of partner cooperation, as delaying treatment puts the patient at risk for ascending infection.

Question 630: A pregnant lady delivers a healthy baby via normal delivery. What is the earliest time at which an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) can be inserted?

A. Within 48 hours (Correct Answer)
B. After 6 weeks
C. After 3 months
D. After 1 month

Explanation: ***Within 48 hours*** - **Immediate postpartum insertion** (within 48 hours of delivery) is considered safe and effective, with high client satisfaction and continuation rates. - While there's a slightly higher risk of **expulsion** compared to later insertions, it provides immediate contraception for women who might not return for follow-up. *After 6 weeks* - This is a common time for postpartum check-ups and a traditional window for IUCD insertion, after the uterus has largely involuted. - However, it is not the **earliest possible time**, as immediate postpartum insertion is also an option. *After 3 months* - Delaying IUCD insertion until three months postpartum is unnecessarily late if the woman desires contraception sooner. - This longer delay could increase the risk of an **unintended pregnancy** during the interim. *After 1 month* - Insertion at one month postpartum is also a safe option, after early uterine involution. - However, similar to the six-week option, it is not the **earliest possible time** for insertion.

Practice by Chapter

Natural Family Planning Methods

Practice Questions

Barrier Methods

Practice Questions

Hormonal Contraceptives

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Devices

Practice Questions

Emergency Contraception

Practice Questions

Permanent Contraception Methods

Practice Questions

Contraception in Special Populations

Practice Questions

Contraceptive Counseling

Practice Questions

Side Effects and Complications of Contraceptives

Practice Questions

Future Contraceptive Technologies

Practice Questions

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