Oncology — MCQs

Oncology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 321: What is the most effective primary prevention measure for breast cancer in a high-risk patient with a family history of a BRCA1 mutation?

A. Routine breast screening
B. Preventive mastectomy (Correct Answer)
C. Tamoxifen therapy
D. Regular exercise regimen

Explanation: ***Preventive mastectomy*** - A **bilateral prophylactic mastectomy** significantly reduces the risk of breast cancer (by over 90%) in high-risk individuals, especially those with **BRCA1/2 mutations**. This is considered the most effective primary prevention strategy due to direct removal of at-risk tissue. - This intervention is chosen when the patient has a very high lifetime risk of developing breast cancer due to strong genetic predisposition, aiming to prevent the disease's occurrence rather than detecting it early. *Routine breast screening* - **Routine breast screening** (e.g., mammograms, MRI) is a secondary prevention measure, focusing on **early detection** of cancer, not its prevention. - While important for surveillance, it does not prevent cancer from developing in a high-risk individual with a **BRCA1 mutation**, where lifetime risk can be over 50%. *Tamoxifen therapy* - **Tamoxifen** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that can reduce breast cancer risk, but it's considered a **chemopreventive agent**, offering partial risk reduction rather than complete prevention. - Its effectiveness is generally lower than prophylactic mastectomy, and it carries potential side effects, making it a less definitive primary prevention strategy for the highest risk patients. *Regular exercise regimen* - **Regular exercise** contributes to overall health and can modestly **lower cancer risk** in the general population by maintaining a healthy weight and reducing systemic inflammation. - However, for an individual with a strong genetic predisposition like a **BRCA1 mutation**, lifestyle interventions alone are insufficient as a primary prevention measure to significantly mitigate their exceptionally high risk.

Question 322: A 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer presents with new-onset seizures. An MRI shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions. What is the most likely cause?

A. Primary brain tumor
B. Cerebral abscess
C. Metastatic brain disease (Correct Answer)
D. Multiple sclerosis

Explanation: ### Metastatic brain disease - A patient with a history of **breast cancer** who develops new-onset seizures and **multiple ring-enhancing lesions** on MRI is highly suspicious for **brain metastases** [1]. - Breast cancer is one of the most common primary tumors that metastasize to the brain, and ring-enhancing lesions are a classic imaging finding for metastases [1]. ### Primary brain tumor - While primary brain tumors can cause seizures and ring-enhancing lesions, the presence of a **known primary cancer** strongly biases towards metastatic disease. - Primary brain tumors are typically solitary rather than multiple, though exceptions exist. ### Cerebral abscess - Cerebral abscesses also present with ring-enhancing lesions and can cause seizures [2], but typically there are signs of infection (e.g., fever, elevated inflammatory markers) or a **source of infection**, which are not mentioned here. - The history of breast cancer points away from infection as the primary cause. ### Multiple sclerosis - Multiple sclerosis lesions are typically **periventricular** or in the **corpus callosum** and often show incomplete or "open-ring" enhancement, not classical ring-enhancement. - MS is also not typically associated with a history of breast cancer and new-onset seizures in this manner.

Question 323: A 50-year-old man with a history of alcohol use presents with a painless, ulcerated lesion on the floor of the mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Oral candidiasis
B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Oral squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Leukoplakia

Explanation: ***Oral squamous cell carcinoma*** - A **painless, ulcerated lesion** in the **floor of the mouth** in a patient with a history of **alcohol use** is highly suspicious for oral squamous cell carcinoma. Alcohol use is a significant risk factor. - The floor of the mouth is a common site for oral squamous cell carcinoma, and the **painless nature** of the lesion may lead to delayed diagnosis. *Oral candidiasis* - Typically presents as **creamy white, wipeable plaques** on the oral mucosa, often associated with immunocompromised states or antibiotic use. - While it can be ulcerated in severe cases, the primary presentation is not usually a solitary, persistent ulcer, and it is often **painful**. *Aphthous ulcer* - These are typically **painful, shallow ulcers** with a characteristic red halo, and they tend to recur [1]. - They are usually small, self-limiting, and not associated with specific risk factors like extensive alcohol use in the same way as malignancy [1]. *Leukoplakia* - **Leukoplakia** appears as a **white patch or plaque** that cannot be rubbed off and cannot be characterized clinically as any other definable lesion. - While leukoplakia is a **premalignant lesion** that can transform into squamous cell carcinoma, the description here is of an **ulcerated lesion**, suggesting a more advanced stage of disease or a different entity.

Question 324: A young male presents with a painless testicular mass suspicious for germ cell tumor. Which of the following tumor markers would be most useful for initial evaluation?

A. Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
B. Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) (Correct Answer)
C. Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)
D. β-hCG (beta-human chorionic gonadotropin)

Explanation: ***Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)*** - **AFP** is a key tumor marker in **germ cell tumors**, particularly in **non-seminomatous** testicular tumors such as **yolk sac tumors** [1]. - It is often elevated in patients with a **painless testicular mass**, aiding in the diagnosis and management of these tumors [1]. *CA-125* - **CA-125** is primarily used as a tumor marker for **ovarian cancer** rather than testicular tumors, making it less relevant here. - It is often elevated in **pelvic inflammatory disease** and **endometriosis**, not specific to male genital tract tumors. *Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)* - **CEA** is mostly associated with **colorectal** and **lung cancers**, and is not typically involved in testicular tumor diagnosis [1]. - While it may have some role in gastrointestinal malignancies, it does not serve as a useful marker for **testicular masses** [2]. *Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)* - **PSA** is specific for **prostate disorders**, including cancer, but does not provide relevant information for testicular tumors [1] [2]. - Its elevation is indicative of conditions related to the **prostate gland**, which is not involved in the context of a testicular mass [2].

Question 325: A 50-year-old male presents with painless hematuria. A CT scan reveals a large mass in the bladder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bladder stone
B. Bladder polyp
C. Bladder carcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Bladder infection

Explanation: ***Bladder carcinoma*** - **Painless hematuria** is the classic presenting symptom of bladder cancer, especially in older adults [1]. - The presence of a **large mass** on CT scan in the bladder strongly suggests a malignant tumor [1]. *Bladder stone* - While bladder stones can cause hematuria, it is typically accompanied by **pain**, especially during urination or with movement. - A stone would appear as a calcification on CT, not typically described as a "large mass" in the tissue itself. *Bladder polyp* - Bladder polyps are usually **benign growths** and are much less likely to present as a "large mass" with hematuria in a 50-year-old male [1]. - Though some polyps may bleed, the term "large mass" points more towards a neoplastic process in this age group and presentation [1]. *Bladder infection* - Bladder infections (cystitis) typically cause **painful urination**, urgency, frequency, and sometimes hematuria. - However, a large mass would not be seen with a simple infection; instead, the bladder wall might be thickened.

Question 326: Based on the following details from a death certificate, what is the most likely cause of death? (Details: Patient had a history of breast cancer and recent neurological symptoms.)

A. Metastatic Disease (Correct Answer)
B. Breast Cancer
C. Cerebral Hemorrhage
D. None of the above

Explanation: Metastatic Disease - A history of breast cancer combined with recent neurological symptoms strongly suggests that the cancer has spread to the brain or other parts of the nervous system [1]. - Metastatic disease refers to the spread of cancer from its primary site to distant organs, which is a common and often fatal complication of advanced breast cancer, explaining the neurological decline and ultimately death [1]. Breast Cancer - While breast cancer is the primary disease, it is generally considered the underlying cause rather than the immediate cause of death when distant spread has occurred. - The direct cause of death often relates to the complications arising from metastatic deposits in vital organs, not the localized primary tumor itself. Cerebral Hemorrhage - Although neurological symptoms could potentially include a cerebral hemorrhage, this option is too specific and lacks the broader context of the patient's cancer history. - There is no direct information provided to support a hemorrhage over other more common neurological complications of metastatic cancer, such as brain metastases causing edema or seizures [1]. None of the above - Given the patient's history of breast cancer and neurological symptoms, metastatic disease is a highly plausible and encompassing cause of death. - This option is incorrect because there is a very likely cause of death present among the choices.

Question 327: Which of the following statements about esophageal carcinoma is true?

A. More lethal than the colorectal cancers (Correct Answer)
B. Most esophageal carcinomas are diagnosed at early stages
C. Tumor size is the only significant prognostic factor in esophageal carcinoma
D. These show a decreasing trend in the number of adenocarcinomas globally

Explanation: ### More lethal than the colorectal cancers - Esophageal carcinoma has a **higher mortality rate** due to late presentation and aggressive behavior compared to colorectal cancers. - The overall five-year survival rate for esophageal cancer is significantly **lower** than that of colorectal cancer, emphasizing its lethality [1]. ### Asymptomatic benign lesions should be excised immediately - Not all asymptomatic lesions are malignant; many can be monitored rather than excised, especially if they're **benign**. - **Immediate excision** is not standard practice unless there's a clear risk of malignancy or progression. ### Smaller size esophageal lesions have better survival - While size can influence prognosis, stating that smaller lesions universally equate to **better survival** is an oversimplification. - Other factors like histological type and stage at diagnosis also significantly impact survival, regardless of lesion size [1]. ### These show an increasing trend towards the number of squamous cell carcinomas - Although there was a period of high prevalence of squamous cell carcinoma, the trend is shifting towards **adenocarcinoma**, especially in Western countries. - The overall incidence of esophageal cancers is influenced by lifestyle factors, leading to an increase in adenocarcinomas more than squamous types. **References:** [1] Brian Walker. Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine. 22E ed. Treat any precipitating cause, pp. 891-892.

Question 328: Favorable prognosis with > 90% 5 year survival rate for carcinoma breast is seen in which of the following?

A. Screen detected ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) (Correct Answer)
B. Node negative tumor with favorable histology
C. Triple-negative breast cancer
D. Screen detected lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

Explanation: **Screen detected ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)** - **DCIS** is a non-invasive breast cancer confined to the milk ducts, meaning it has not spread to surrounding tissues. [1] - When detected through screening, it has an excellent prognosis with a **5-year survival rate often exceeding 90%** after appropriate treatment (e.g., lumpectomy with or without radiation). *Node negative tumor with favorable histology* - While a **node-negative tumor** generally indicates a better prognosis than node-positive disease, the specific "favorable histology" isn't precisely defined to guarantee a >90% 5-year survival on its own as universally as DCIS. - **Histology** can vary greatly, and even node-negative invasive cancers can have less favorable subtypes that reduce 5-year survival below this high threshold. *Triple-negative breast cancer* - **Triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC)** lacks estrogen receptors, progesterone receptors, and HER2 overexpression, making it an aggressive subtype. - TNBC has a **poorer prognosis** compared to other breast cancer types and is not associated with a >90% 5-year survival rate, especially once it becomes invasive. *Screen detected lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)* - **LCIS** is considered a high-risk marker for developing invasive breast cancer in either breast, rather than a true cancer itself. [1] - While it doesn't directly metastasize, its presence indicates a **significantly increased lifetime risk** of developing invasive lobular or ductal carcinoma, and it's not treated as a "cancer" with a 5-year survival in the same way as DCIS. [1]

Question 329: Previous radiation therapy for which disease particularly increases the risk of breast carcinoma development?

A. Mantle cell lymphoma
B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C. Lung carcinoma
D. Hodgkin's lymphoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: No relevant citations met the criteria for inclusion based on the provided references.

Question 330: Which of the following tumors most commonly presents with upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A. Primary gastric cancer (Correct Answer)
B. Esophageal carcinoma
C. Metastases to stomach
D. Hepatic adenocarcinoma

Explanation: ***Primary gastric cancer*** - Gastric cancers frequently present with **upper gastrointestinal bleeding** due to ulceration or erosion of the tumor into the gastric mucosa [1]. - This is a common and often early symptom that leads to diagnosis, manifesting as **hematemesis** or **melena** [1]. *Esophageal carcinoma* - While esophageal carcinoma can cause bleeding, it is more commonly associated with **dysphagia** and **weight loss** as primary presenting symptoms [1]. - Bleeding from esophageal tumors is generally less frequent and often less severe than from gastric tumors, unless significant ulceration or invasion of large vessels occurs. *Metastases to stomach* - Metastatic tumors to the stomach are relatively rare, and when they occur, they are **often asymptomatic** or present with non-specific symptoms like pain or early satiety. - Clinically significant **upper gastrointestinal bleeding** as the primary presentation is uncommon compared to primary gastric malignancies. *Hepatic adenocarcinoma* - Hepatic adenocarcinoma originates in the liver and typically presents with symptoms related to **liver dysfunction**, such as jaundice, ascites, or right upper quadrant pain [1]. - **Upper gastrointestinal bleeding** is not a direct symptom of hepatic adenocarcinoma, though variceal bleeding can occur secondary to portal hypertension in advanced liver disease [2].

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