Oncology Practice Questions

Q: A 65-year-old chronic smoker presents with a rapidly enlarging large hilar mass on a chest film associated with significant adenopathy. He also experiences recurrent hypoglycemic spells. Which of the following lung carcinoma subtypes will most commonly lead to this spectrum?

Small cell carcinoma. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a **rapidly enlarging hilar mass** with significant **adenopathy** in a chronic smoker is highly characteristic of **Small Cell Lung Carcinoma (SCLC)** [1]. SCLC is a neuroendocrine tumor known for its aggressive growth and early mediastinal involvement. **Why Small Cell Carcinoma is correct:** The "recurrent hypoglycemic spells" point toward a **Paraneoplastic Syndrome**. While SCLC is most famously associated with SIADH (hyponatremia) and ectopic ACTH (Cushing’s syndrome) [1], it can also cause hypoglycemia through the secretion of **Insulin-like Growth Factor (IGF)** or, rarely, insulin-like substances. Furthermore, SCLC is the lung cancer most strongly associated with central/hilar locations and smoking [2]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Squamous Cell Carcinoma:** Also central and smoking-related, but typically associated with **Hypercalcemia** (due to PTHrP secretion), not hypoglycemia [1]. * **Adenocarcinoma:** The most common lung cancer overall; however, it is usually **peripheral** in location and more common in non-smokers. It is associated with hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (clubbing) [1]. * **Large Cell Carcinoma:** A diagnosis of exclusion that presents as a large peripheral mass with early metastasis, but it is not the classic cause of the described paraneoplastic endocrine features. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **SCLC Markers:** Positive for Chromogranin A, Synaptophysin, and CD56. * **Paraneoplastic Associations:** * **SCLC:** SIADH, Ectopic ACTH, Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome [1]. * **Squamous Cell:** Hypercalcemia (PTHrP) [1]. * **Adenocarcinoma:** Trousseau syndrome (thrombophlebitis), Marantic endocarditis. * **Rule of "S":** **S**mall cell and **S**quamous cell are **S**moking-related and **S**entral [2].

Q: What is the best treatment for glioblastoma multiforme?

Surgical excision followed by radiation therapy. **Explanation:** Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM) is the most common and aggressive primary malignant brain tumor in adults (WHO Grade 4) [1]. The standard of care, known as the **Stupp Protocol**, involves a multimodal approach. **Why Option C is correct:** The primary goal in managing GBM is **maximal safe surgical resection** [1]. Reducing the tumor burden (cytoreduction) alleviates mass effect and intracranial hypertension [1]. However, because GBM is highly infiltrative, surgery alone is never curative. Therefore, it must be followed by **adjuvant radiotherapy** (usually 60 Gy) combined with **Temozolomide (TMZ)**, an oral alkylating agent, to target residual microscopic disease. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (Chemotherapy):** While Temozolomide is standard, it is used as an *adjunct* to surgery and radiation, not as a standalone primary treatment. * **Option B (Radiation therapy):** Radiation alone is insufficient for large masses and is typically reserved for patients who are not surgical candidates due to tumor location or poor performance status. * **Option D (Stereotactic radiosurgery):** SRS is highly effective for small, well-demarcated brain metastases or vestibular schwannomas, but it is not the primary treatment for GBM due to the tumor's diffuse, ill-defined margins. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Imaging:** Classic "Butterfly glioma" appearance (crosses the corpus callosum) with **ring enhancement** and central necrosis on MRI [2]. * **Histopathology:** Characterized by **pseudopalisading necrosis** and microvascular proliferation. * **Prognostic Marker:** **MGMT promoter methylation** is a positive predictor of response to Temozolomide. * **Origin:** Arises from astrocytes; most common site is the cerebral hemispheres (frontal and temporal lobes).

Q: Which of the following hormones is elevated in small cell carcinoma of the lung?

Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF). Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) is a neuroendocrine tumor known for its strong association with paraneoplastic syndromes due to the ectopic secretion of hormones [1]. **Why Option B is Correct:** SCLC is the most common cause of the **Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)** [1], [2]. While SIADH is primarily caused by ectopic ADH (vasopressin) production, studies have shown that SCLC cells can also secrete **Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF)** or Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP). Both ADH and ANF contribute to the characteristic hyponatremia seen in these patients—ADH by increasing water reabsorption and ANF by promoting natriuresis (sodium excretion). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (PTH):** Ectopic production of **PTHrP** (Parathyroid Hormone-related Protein) is classically associated with **Squamous Cell Carcinoma** of the lung, leading to hypercalcemia [1]. * **Option C (Growth Hormone):** Ectopic GH is rare in lung cancer; however, Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH) can occasionally be secreted by bronchial carcinoids. * **Option D (VIP):** VIP secretion is typically associated with **VIPomas** (pancreatic islet cell tumors) or neuroblastomas, causing watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria (WDHA syndrome). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **SCLC Associations:** SIADH (most common), Ectopic ACTH (Cushing’s Syndrome) [1], [3], and Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS). * **Rule of "S":** **S**quamous cell carcinoma and **S**mall cell carcinoma are both **S**moking-related and **S**entrally (centrally) located. * **Hypercalcemia in Lung Cancer:** If it's Squamous cell, think **PTHrP** [1]. If it's Small cell, hypercalcemia is rare and usually due to bone metastasis, not hormones.

Q: What is the most common physical sign of cerebral metastasis?

Focal neurological deficit. Explanation: Cerebral metastasis is the most common intracranial tumor in adults, occurring in approximately 20-40% of cancer patients. Why Focal Neurological Deficit is Correct: The most common presenting physical sign of brain metastasis is a focal neurological deficit (seen in about 50-70% of patients) [1]. This occurs because metastatic lesions typically lodge at the gray-white matter junction, where they cause localized tissue destruction, mass effect, or significant perilesional vasogenic edema [1]. Common deficits include hemiparesis, sensory loss, or aphasia, depending on the anatomical location of the tumor [1]. Analysis of Incorrect Options: * A. Epilepsy (Seizures): While common (occurring in ~25% of cases), seizures are the second most common presenting feature after focal deficits and headache [1]. They are more frequent in metastases to the frontal or temporal lobes. * C. Papilloedema: This is a sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). While it can occur due to mass effect or obstructive hydrocephalus, it is a late finding and much less common than focal deficits in the era of early MRI detection. * D. Visual defects: These are specific types of focal deficits (e.g., hemianopia) that occur only when the visual pathways or occipital cortex are involved. They are not as frequent as motor or sensory deficits. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: * Most common primary source: Lung cancer (most common overall), followed by Breast cancer and Melanoma [1]. * Most common symptom: Headache (often worse in the morning or with Valsalva) [1]. * Imaging of choice: Contrast-enhanced MRI (shows "ring-enhancing" lesions with extensive surrounding edema) [1]. * Management: Dexamethasone is the initial step to reduce vasogenic edema; definitive treatment involves surgery, SRS (Stereotactic Radiosurgery), or WBRT (Whole Brain Radiation Therapy).

Q: A 65-year-old man with a 45-pack-per-year history of smoking presents with hematuria, flank pain, and unintentional weight loss. He has no fever, chills, or dysuria. Physical examination reveals no abdominal mass or flank tenderness. Laboratory findings show a hemoglobin of 18.5 g/dL and normal liver enzymes. An abdominal CT scan demonstrates a left kidney mass involving the renal vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Renal cell carcinoma. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)** is classically described by the "triad" of hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass [1]. However, this triad is seen in only about 10% of cases and often signifies advanced disease. **Why Renal Cell Carcinoma is correct:** 1. **Risk Factors:** The patient’s age (65) and significant smoking history (45 pack-years) are major risk factors [1]. 2. **Paraneoplastic Syndrome:** The hemoglobin of 18.5 g/dL indicates **polycythemia**, a classic paraneoplastic manifestation of RCC caused by the ectopic production of **Erythropoietin (EPO)**. 3. **Imaging:** A solid mass involving the renal vein is highly characteristic of RCC, as it has a notorious propensity for **vascular invasion** (extending into the renal vein and potentially the inferior vena cava). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Renal cyst:** Typically asymptomatic and incidentally found; simple cysts do not cause weight loss, polycythemia, or vascular invasion. * **Renal metastases:** While possible, primary renal tumors are more common than metastases to the kidney [1]. Furthermore, polycythemia specifically points toward a primary EPO-secreting renal tumor. * **Renal abscess:** Usually presents with systemic signs of infection such as high-grade fever, chills, and leukocytosis, which are absent here. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common histological type:** Clear cell carcinoma (derived from proximal convoluted tubule) [1]. * **Genetic association:** Deletion of the **VHL gene** on chromosome 3p. * **Stauffer Syndrome:** Reversible hepatic dysfunction (elevated LFTs) in the absence of liver metastases, another classic paraneoplastic syndrome of RCC. * **Left-sided varicocele:** May occur if the tumor obstructs the left renal vein, preventing drainage of the left gonadal vein.

Q: All of the following are associated with paraneoplastic syndromes except?

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. **Explanation:** The core concept in this question is distinguishing between a **Paraneoplastic Syndrome (PNS)** and an **Opportunistic Infection** occurring in a malignancy-associated immunocompromised state. **Why Option B is the correct answer:** **Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)** is not a paraneoplastic syndrome. It is a demyelinating disease of the CNS caused by the reactivation of the **JC virus** (a polyomavirus). While it occurs frequently in patients with hematological malignancies (like CLL or Lymphoma) due to profound immunosuppression, it is an **infectious process**, not an immune-mediated response to the tumor itself. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Cerebellar Degeneration:** A classic PNS (Subacute Cerebellar Degeneration) often associated with **anti-Yo** (Breast/Ovarian cancer), **anti-Hu** (SCLC), or **anti-Tr** (Hodgkin’s) antibodies. * **C. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS):** While most ALS is idiopathic, a "motor neuron disease" phenotype can occur as a paraneoplastic manifestation, particularly in patients with **Lymphoma** or **Renal Cell Carcinoma**. * **D. Opsoclonus Myoclonus:** Known as "dancing eyes, dancing feet" syndrome. In children, it is highly suggestive of **Neuroblastoma**; in adults, it is often associated with **Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)** (anti-Ri antibodies). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS):** Most common paraneoplastic neuromuscular junction disorder (associated with SCLC; anti-VGCC antibodies). 2. **Anti-NMDA Receptor Encephalitis:** Classically associated with **Ovarian Teratoma** in young females. 3. **Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH):** The most common endocrine PNS, typically seen in **SCLC**. 4. **Hypercalcemia:** Most commonly caused by **PTHrP** production in **Squamous Cell Carcinoma** (Lung).

Q: What is the most common anterior mediastinal tumor?

Thymoma. **Explanation:** The mediastinum is anatomically divided into compartments, each associated with specific pathologies. The **anterior mediastinum** (the space between the sternum and the pericardium) is the most common site for mediastinal masses [1]. **1. Why Thymoma is Correct:** Thymoma is the most common primary tumor of the anterior mediastinum in adults (typically aged 40–60). It originates from the epithelial cells of the thymus. A classic clinical association high-yield for exams is that approximately 30–50% of patients with thymoma have **Myasthenia Gravis**, while about 15% of patients with Myasthenia Gravis are found to have a thymoma. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Neurogenic Tumors (Option B):** These are the most common tumors of the **posterior mediastinum**, usually arising from nerve sheaths (e.g., Schwannomas) or sympathetic ganglia [1]. * **Lymphoma (Option C):** While common in the anterior mediastinum (especially Hodgkin Lymphoma in younger patients), it is statistically less frequent as a primary isolated mass compared to thymoma. * **Teratoma (Option D):** These are the most common **germ cell tumors** of the anterior mediastinum but are less common overall than thymomas. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "4 Ts" of Anterior Mediastinal Masses:** **T**hymoma (most common), **T**errible Lymphoma, **T**eratoma (and other Germ Cell Tumors), and **T**hyroid (Retrosternal Goiter) [1]. * **Imaging:** Contrast-Enhanced CT (CECT) is the gold standard for localization [1]. * **Red Flag:** If a patient presents with an anterior mass and elevated **AFP or beta-hCG**, think Non-Seminomatous Germ Cell Tumor.

Q: Migratory necrolytic erythema is seen in which of the following conditions?

Glucagonoma syndrome. **Explanation:** **Migratory Necrolytic Erythema (MNE)** is the pathognomonic cutaneous manifestation of **Glucagonoma**, a rare alpha-cell tumor of the pancreas. The rash typically presents as pruritic, painful, erythematous plaques that progress to vesicles and bullae, eventually crusting and healing with hyperpigmentation. It most commonly affects the perineum, groin, and distal extremities. The underlying mechanism is thought to be related to hypoaminoacidemia, zinc deficiency, or the direct inflammatory effects of hyperglucagonemia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome:** Characterized by hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract and **mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation** (melanotic macules) on the lips and buccal mucosa. * **Sarcoidosis:** Classically associated with **Lupus Pernio** (violaceous plaques on the nose/cheeks) and **Erythema Nodosum** (tender nodules on the shins). * **Amyloidosis:** Skin findings typically include **pinch purpura** (periorbital ecchymosis) and waxy, translucent papules due to protein deposition. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The 4 D’s of Glucagonoma Syndrome:** **D**ermatitis (MNE), **D**iabetes (mild glucose intolerance), **D**epression/Dementia, and **D**eep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). * **Laboratory findings:** Extremely high serum glucagon levels (>1000 pg/mL) and low serum amino acids. * **Treatment:** Somatostatin analogues (Octreotide) are used to control symptoms by inhibiting glucagon release before surgical resection.

Question 1

Hypercalcemia related to malignancy is seen in which of the following cancers?

Accepted Answer

All the above

Answer

Multiple myeloma

Answer

Lung carcinoma

Answer

Carcinoma breast

Question 2

A 65-year-old chronic smoker presents with a rapidly enlarging large hilar mass on a chest film associated with significant adenopathy. He also experiences recurrent hypoglycemic spells. Which of the following lung carcinoma subtypes will most commonly lead to this spectrum?

Accepted Answer

Small cell carcinoma

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Adenocarcinoma

Answer

Large cell carcinoma

Question 3

What is the best treatment for glioblastoma multiforme?

Accepted Answer

Surgical excision followed by radiation therapy

Answer

Chemotherapy

Answer

Radiation therapy

Answer

Stereotactic radiosurgery

Question 4

Which of the following lung cancers has the best prognosis of all malignant lung cancers?

Accepted Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

Answer

Metastatic cancer to the lung

Answer

Adenocarcinoma of the lung

Answer

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

Question 5

Which of the following hormones is elevated in small cell carcinoma of the lung?

Accepted Answer

Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)

Answer

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Answer

Growth hormone

Answer

Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

Question 6

What is the most common physical sign of cerebral metastasis?

Accepted Answer

Focal neurological deficit

Answer

Epilepsy

Answer

Papilloedema

Answer

Visual defects

Question 7

A 65-year-old man with a 45-pack-per-year history of smoking presents with hematuria, flank pain, and unintentional weight loss. He has no fever, chills, or dysuria. Physical examination reveals no abdominal mass or flank tenderness. Laboratory findings show a hemoglobin of 18.5 g/dL and normal liver enzymes. An abdominal CT scan demonstrates a left kidney mass involving the renal vein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Renal cell carcinoma

Answer

Renal cyst

Answer

Renal metastases

Answer

Renal abscess

Question 8

All of the following are associated with paraneoplastic syndromes except?

Accepted Answer

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Answer

Cerebellar degeneration

Answer

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Answer

Opsoclonus myoclonus

Question 9

What is the most common anterior mediastinal tumor?

Accepted Answer

Thymoma

Answer

Neurogenic tumor

Answer

Lymphoma

Answer

Teratoma

Question 10

Migratory necrolytic erythema is seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Glucagonoma syndrome

Answer

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Amyloidosis

Oncology — MCQs

Oncology — MCQs

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