Gastroenterology — MCQs

Gastroenterology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 971: Which of the following statements regarding peptic ulcers are correct? 1. Duodenal ulcers are more common as compared to gastric ulcers. 2. Helicobacter pylori and NSAIDs are most common causative agents. 3. Bleeding is the most common complication associated with posterior duodenal ulcer.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 only (Correct Answer)
D. 1 and 3 only

Explanation: ***1 and 2 only*** - **Duodenal ulcers** are significantly more common than gastric ulcers, with a ratio of about 4:1 [1]. - The two primary causes of peptic ulcers are infection with **_Helicobacter pylori_** and the use of **non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)** [1]. *2 and 3 only* - While _**H. pylori**_ and **NSAIDs** are indeed the most common causes, the statement incorrectly assumes that bleeding is the most common complication associated with **posterior duodenal ulcers**, when the most common complication of all peptic ulcers is **hemorrhage** but it is more specifically associated with posterior duodenal ulcers due to proximity to the **gastroduodenal artery**. - Hence, the second and third statements are individually correct, but the first statement which says duodenal ulcers are more common then gastric ulcers is also correct. *1, 2 and 3* - While statements 1 and 2 are correct individually, statement 3, which attributes bleeding as the most common complication specifically to posterior duodenal ulcers, is correct because posterior duodenal ulcers are particularly prone to bleeding due to the proximity of the **gastroduodenal artery** [1]. - Thus, all three statements are individually correct, but the combination chosen is redundant. *1 and 3 only* - This option is flawed because it omits statement 2, which correctly identifies **_H. pylori_** and **NSAIDs** as the primary causes of peptic ulcers [1]. - Although posterior duodenal ulcers are associated with bleeding, statement 3 is not complete enough without the inclusion of statement 2.

Question 972: Which of the following is the LEAST invasive initial treatment option for achalasia? 1. Botulinum toxin 2. Beta blockers 3. Pneumatic dilation 4. Heller's myotomy

A. 3. Pneumatic dilation
B. 4. Heller's myotomy
C. 2. Beta blockers (Correct Answer)
D. 1. Botulinum toxin

Explanation: ***Beta blockers*** - This is incorrect as **beta blockers** are not a recognized treatment for achalasia. - Achalasia management focuses on reducing **lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** pressure, which beta blockers do not achieve [1]. *Pneumatic dilation* - While less invasive than surgery, **pneumatic dilation** involves stretching the LES using a balloon, which carries risks such as perforation [2]. - It is generally considered a more invasive intervention than endoscopic injection therapies, and not initial treatment [2]. *Heller's myotomy* - This is a **surgical procedure** to cut the muscle fibers of the LES, making it the most invasive option among those listed [2]. - It is typically reserved for cases where less invasive treatments have failed or for patients who prefer a more definitive, long-term solution. *Botulinum toxin* - **Botulinum toxin** injection into the LES is a less invasive endoscopic procedure [2]. - It temporarily relaxes the LES by inhibiting acetylcholine release, though its effects are not permanent and repeated injections may be necessary [2].

Question 973: Which of the following scoring systems are PRIMARILY designed for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis?

A. 2. APACHE score
B. 3. MELD score
C. 1. Ranson and Glasgow score (Correct Answer)
D. 4. Modified Marshall score

Explanation: ***Ranson and Glasgow score*** - The **Ranson criteria** and the **Glasgow Coma Scale** (also known as the Imrie score) are classical scoring systems specifically developed and widely used to assess the **severity of acute pancreatitis** [1]. - Both scores incorporate multiple clinical and laboratory parameters evaluated at admission and within the first 48 hours to predict the likelihood of complications and mortality in acute pancreatitis. *APACHE score* - The **Acute Physiology, Age, Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) score** (e.g., APACHE II, APACHE III) is a general severity-of-illness classification system for critically ill patients and is not specific to acute pancreatitis. - While it can be applied to patients with acute pancreatitis in the ICU, it's designed for a **broader range of critical illnesses** rather than primarily for pancreatitis. *MELD score* - The **Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score** is used to assess the severity of **chronic liver disease** and predict prognosis, particularly for patients awaiting liver transplantation. - It is **not designed for acute pancreatitis** and is irrelevant in this context. *Modified Marshall score* - The **Modified Marshall scoring system** is primarily used to assess **organ dysfunction** in acute pancreatitis, especially in clinical trials or for defining severe acute pancreatitis. - While relevant to pancreatitis severity, it is more focused on **specific organ systems' failure** rather than providing a global predictive score for overall severity and mortality in the same way Ranson or Glasgow scores do.

Question 974: Which of the following statements about peptic ulcers is correct?

A. It is more commonly seen in females.
B. The most common location is the third part of duodenum.
C. Anteriorly located duodenal ulcers are 'more prone for perforation'. (Correct Answer)
D. There is no risk of malignancy in gastric ulcers.

Explanation: Anteriorly located duodenal ulcers are 'more prone for perforation' - The duodenal bulb is largely peritonealized, and an **anterior ulcer** perforates into the peritoneal cavity, leading to **peritonitis**. - Posterior ulcers, in contrast, are more likely to erode into vessels like the **gastroduodenal artery**, causing **hemorrhage** rather than perforation. *It is more commonly seen in females* - Peptic ulcers, particularly **duodenal ulcers**, are generally more common in **men** than women, though the incidence in women has increased. - The prevalence largely depends on risk factors like **NSAID use** and **H. pylori infection**, which do not show a strong female predominance [1]. *The most common location is the third part of duodenum* - The most common location for **duodenal ulcers** is the **first part of the duodenum** (duodenal bulb) [1]. - Ulcers in the third part of the duodenum are less common and may suggest underlying conditions like **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome**. *There is no risk of malignancy in gastric ulcers* - While not all gastric ulcers are malignant, there is a definite **risk of malignancy** associated with **gastric ulcers**, especially within the setting of chronic inflammation or H. pylori infection [1]. - All gastric ulcers, once identified, require follow-up and **biopsy to rule out malignancy**; this is less of a concern for duodenal ulcers.

Question 975: The 'gold standard' for the diagnosis of GORD (Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease) is

A. upper GI endoscopy
B. 24-hour pH recording (Correct Answer)
C. CT scan
D. barium meal follow through

Explanation: ***24-hour pH recording*** - This method directly measures the **frequency** and **duration of acid exposure** in the esophagus, providing objective evidence of reflux. - It is considered the gold standard because it can **quantify reflux episodes** and correlate them with patient symptoms. *upper GI endoscopy* - While useful for visualizing **mucosal damage** [1] (esophagitis, strictures, Barrett's esophagus) caused by reflux, it does not directly measure or confirm reflux itself. - Many patients with GORD symptoms have **normal endoscopic findings**, making it unsuitable as the gold standard for diagnosis. *CT scan* - A CT scan is not typically used for diagnosing GORD. - It is more useful for identifying **structural abnormalities** or **complications** of reflux, such as tumors or hiatal hernias. *barium meal follow through* - This imaging technique can identify **structural abnormalities** like hiatal hernia or severe reflux events, but it is not sensitive enough to detect intermittent or mild reflux. - It provides a **snapshot** of reflux and cannot quantify the total acid exposure over a prolonged period.

Question 976: Motility disorders of the oesophagus are best diagnosed by

A. Barium meal
B. Endoscopy
C. Radiography
D. Manometry (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Manometry*** - Oesophageal manometry is the **gold standard** for diagnosing motility disorders by directly measuring the pressure activity and coordination of oesophageal muscle contractions and sphincter function [1]. - It provides **physiologic data** critical for identifying conditions like achalasia, diffuse oesophageal spasm, and ineffective oesophageal motility; high-resolution manometry specifically allows for the accurate classification of these abnormalities [1]. *Barium meal* - A barium meal provides **structural and morphological information** and can show gross motility abnormalities, but it does not quantitatively measure pressure or coordination of contractions [1]. - It is often used as a **screening tool** and can suggest motility disorders, but manometry is needed for definitive diagnosis [1]. *Endoscopy* - Endoscopy is primarily used to visualize the **mucosa** and lumen of the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum to rule out structural abnormalities like strictures, masses, or inflammation [1, 5]. - While it can indirectly reveal some motility issues (e.g., retained food in achalasia), it does not directly assess the **functional contractile activity** of the oesophageal muscle [1]. *Radiography* - General radiography (X-rays) of the chest or abdomen is primarily used to evaluate **gross anatomical structures** or identify abnormalities like pneumomediastinum or foreign bodies [2]. - It has **limited utility** for evaluating specific oesophageal motility disorders, unlike specialized imaging with contrast (barium swallow) or functional studies (manometry) [1, 4].

Question 977: Consider the following prognostic parameters of acute pancreatitis : 1. Rise in blood urea nitrogen over 5 mg/dl 2. Hematocrit decrease over 10% 3. Base deficit more than 4 mmol/L 4. Blood glucose over 10 mmol/L Which of the above parameters are important during initial 48 hours ?

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2 only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1 and 2 only*** - A **rise in blood urea nitrogen over 5 mg/dL** and a **hematocrit decrease over 10%** within the initial 48 hours are significant early indicators of fluid sequestration and systemic inflammation, which are critical prognostic factors in acute pancreatitis [1]. - These parameters are part of common prognostic scoring systems, like the **Modified Glasgow Score** or **Ranson's Criteria**, used to assess the severity and predict outcomes [1]. *2 and 3 only* - While a **hematocrit decrease over 10%** is a relevant early prognostic indicator, a **base deficit more than 4 mmol/L** (indicating metabolic acidosis) typically emerges later or reflects more severe, established organ dysfunction. - Early prognostic assessment focuses on parameters measurable within the first 48 hours that reflect initial systemic impact. *1, 2 and 3* - **Rise in blood urea nitrogen over 5 mg/dL** and **hematocrit decrease over 10%** are valid early indicators, but a **base deficit more than 4 mmol/L** is not included in the standard initial 48-hour prognostic criteria for acute pancreatitis severity assessment for the first two days [1]. - This option incorrectly includes base deficit as a primary early prognostic parameter. *1, 3 and 4* - **Rise in blood urea nitrogen over 5 mg/dL** is a correct early prognostic parameter. However, a **base deficit more than 4 mmol/L** and **blood glucose over 10 mmol/L** are less specifically emphasized as *initial 48-hour* critical parameters in all common scoring systems. - While hyperglycemia can be present, its specific prognostic cutoff often varies, and it typically contributes to overall severity rather than being a standalone early change in the first 48 hours.

Question 978: Which one of the following is not a common feature of bile duct stone ?

A. Clay colored stools
B. Distended gall bladder (Correct Answer)
C. Itching
D. Obstructive jaundice

Explanation: ***Distended gall bladder*** - A distended gallbladder is **less common** when the obstruction is caused by a stone in the **common bile duct (CBD)** because the gallbladder can often decompress through the cystic duct if it is patent. [1] - Furthermore, **Mirizzi syndrome**, which can cause gallbladder distension due to an impacted stone in the cystic duct compressing the CBD, is a specific and less frequent scenario than simple choledocholithiasis. [2] *Clay colored stools* - **Clay-colored stools** (acholic stools) are a common feature of bile duct obstruction as it prevents bilirubin from reaching the intestines to be converted into **stercobilin**, which gives stool its normal brown color. - The absence of bilirubin in the gut results in stools appearing pale or gray. *Itching* - **Pruritus (itching)** is a very common symptom of bile duct obstruction due to the systemic accumulation of **bile salts** and other pruritic substances that are normally excreted in bile. [3] - These substances deposit in the skin, irritating nerve endings. *Obstructive jaundice* - **Obstructive jaundice** is a hallmark feature of bile duct stones. The obstruction prevents the flow of conjugated bilirubin into the intestine, leading to its reabsorption into the bloodstream. [1] - This results in elevated **conjugated bilirubin** and **icterus**, causing yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera.

Question 979: To differentiate pancreatic ascites from ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver, the most important test is :

A. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio pancreatography (ERCP)
C. Computed tomogram (CT) scan
D. Abdominal paracentesis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Abdominal paracentesis*** - This procedure involves analyzing the **ascitic fluid**, which is crucial for distinguishing between pancreatic ascites and cirrhosis-related ascites [1]. - In **pancreatic ascites**, the fluid will have a very high **amylase** content and often a high protein level (>2.5 g/dL), whereas in **cirrhosis**, the amylase is typically normal and the protein is usually low (<2.5 g/dL) [1]. *Abdominal ultrasound* - While useful for detecting ascites and underlying liver disease (cirrhosis), it cannot definitively determine the **cause of ascites** or the specific content of the ascitic fluid [2]. - Ultrasound can visualize the pancreas but cannot reliably differentiate pancreatic ascites from other causes without **fluid analysis**. *Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)* - This is an **invasive procedure** primarily used for diagnosing and treating disorders of the bile ducts and pancreatic duct, such as strictures or stones. - It is not the most important or initial test for differentiating the cause of ascites, as its main role is in identifying **ductal leaks** that might lead to pancreatic ascites, rather than direct fluid analysis. *Computed tomogram (CT) scan* - CT can confirm the presence of ascites, evaluate the **pancreas** for inflammation or pseudocysts, and assess the **liver** for signs of cirrhosis [2]. - However, like ultrasound, a CT scan cannot provide the definitive **biochemical analysis** of the ascitic fluid that is necessary to distinguish pancreatic ascites from other causes.

Question 980: Factors important in the formation of gall stones include all of the following except :

A. Obesity
B. The size of micelles
C. Cholesterol saturation in bile
D. Gall bladder motility (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Gall bladder motility*** - While factors like gallbladder **stasis** or **hypomotility** can *contribute* to gallstone formation by allowing bile to concentrate, normal gallbladder motility itself does not directly form stones. - Efficient gallbladder emptying helps prevent the supersaturation and precipitation of cholesterol and bilirubin that lead to stone formation [2]. *Obesity* - Obesity increases the **hepatic secretion of cholesterol**, leading to more cholesterol in the bile [1]. - This increased cholesterol can lead to **supersaturation** of bile, making it prone to forming cholesterol gallstones. *Cholesterol saturation in bile* - When bile contains more cholesterol than can be kept in solution by bile salts and phospholipids, it becomes **supersaturated** [3]. - This supersaturation is a primary driver for the **precipitation of cholesterol crystals**, which aggregate to form gallstones [1]. *The size of micelles* - Micelles are small aggregates of bile salts and phospholipids that solubilize cholesterol in bile [3]. - If the **micelle size is insufficient** or their number is reduced, they cannot adequately solubilize the cholesterol, leading to its precipitation and stone formation [3].

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Practice Questions

Malabsorption Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pancreatitis (Acute and Chronic)

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

Practice Questions

Liver Diseases and Cirrhosis

Practice Questions

Viral Hepatitis

Practice Questions

Biliary Tract Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Motility Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Malignancies

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free