Gastroenterology — MCQs

Gastroenterology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 281: Gastric erosions are likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Pernicious anaemia (Correct Answer)
B. Cor pulmonale
C. Polycythemia rubra vera
D. Hepatic cirrhosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Pernicious Anaemia (Correct Answer):** Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune condition characterized by the presence of antibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor. This leads to **Type A Chronic Atrophic Gastritis**, primarily affecting the body and fundus of the stomach [1]. The chronic inflammatory process results in mucosal atrophy and the development of **gastric erosions**. Furthermore, the resulting achlorhydria leads to hypergastrinemia, which can cause enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cell hyperplasia and increases the risk of gastric carcinoids and adenocarcinoma. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Cor Pulmonale:** This refers to right-sided heart failure due to pulmonary hypertension. While it causes systemic venous congestion (congestive gastropathy), it is not classically associated with acute or chronic gastric erosions. * **Polycythemia Rubra Vera:** This myeloproliferative disorder is associated with hyperviscosity and increased histamine release (from basophilia). While histamine can increase acid secretion leading to **Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)**, it is less specifically linked to gastric erosions compared to the atrophic changes in Pernicious Anaemia. * **Hepatic Cirrhosis:** Cirrhosis is associated with **Portal Hypertensive Gastropathy (PHG)**, characterized by a "snake-skin" appearance of the mucosa and ectatic vessels, rather than true inflammatory erosions. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Type A Gastritis:** **A**utoimmune, **A**nemia (Pernicious), **A**chlorhydria, affects the **A**ndrum-sparing (Body/Fundus) [1]. * **Type B Gastritis:** **B**acteria (*H. pylori*), affects the **B**asal/Antrum part of the stomach [1]. * Gastric erosions are most commonly caused by **NSAIDs, Alcohol, and Severe Stress** (Curling’s and Cushing’s ulcers) [1]. * Pernicious anaemia patients require lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation and periodic endoscopic surveillance due to increased malignancy risk.

Question 282: Amyl nitrite inhalation test is used to detect which condition?

A. Carcinoma esophagus
B. Achalasia cardia (Correct Answer)
C. Oesophageal diverticulum
D. Transeoesophageal fistula

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Achalasia Cardia** is characterized by the failure of the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) to relax and the absence of esophageal peristalsis [1]. The **Amyl Nitrite Inhalation Test** is a pharmacological provocative test used during barium swallow or manometry to differentiate Achalasia from mechanical obstructions (like Pseudoachalasia). 1. **Mechanism (Why B is correct):** Amyl nitrite is a potent smooth muscle relaxant. In patients with Achalasia, the LES hypertonicity is functional. Inhalation of amyl nitrite causes the LES to relax, allowing the barium column to drain into the stomach. This confirms that the obstruction is due to a functional motor disorder rather than a fixed anatomical lesion. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Carcinoma Esophagus:** This is a mechanical/organic obstruction. Amyl nitrite will not relax a malignant stricture; therefore, the barium column will remain unchanged. * **Esophageal Diverticulum:** These are structural outpouchings (e.g., Zenker’s) diagnosed by barium swallow based on anatomy, not smooth muscle response [1]. * **Tracheoesophageal Fistula:** This is a congenital or acquired communication between the trachea and esophagus, diagnosed via imaging or endoscopy, unrelated to LES tone. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Esophageal Manometry (shows "incomplete LES relaxation" and "aperistalsis") [1]. * **Barium Swallow Sign:** "Bird’s Beak" or "Rat-tail" appearance. * **Heller’s Myotomy:** The surgical treatment of choice. * **Chagas Disease:** A common secondary cause of Achalasia (caused by *Trypanosoma cruzi*).

Question 283: Hemochromatosis is associated with all features except?

A. Hypogonadism
B. Skin pigmentation
C. Gastric atrophy (Correct Answer)
D. Micronodular cirrhosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** Hereditary Hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder (most commonly involving the **HFE gene**) characterized by excessive iron absorption and deposition in various parenchymal organs, leading to tissue damage and functional failure [1]. **Why Gastric Atrophy is the Correct Answer:** Iron deposition in Hemochromatosis typically affects the liver, pancreas, heart, joints, and pituitary gland. It **does not involve the stomach mucosa** or cause gastric atrophy. Gastric atrophy is more commonly associated with autoimmune processes (Pernicious anemia) or chronic *H. pylori* infection. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Hypogonadism:** This is a classic feature caused by iron deposition in the **anterior pituitary gland**, leading to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism [1]. It manifests as decreased libido, impotence, and testicular atrophy. * **Skin Pigmentation:** Often described as "bronzing" of the skin, this occurs due to both increased **melanin production** and direct iron deposition (hemosiderin) in the dermis [1]. * **Micronodular Cirrhosis:** The liver is the primary site of iron storage. Chronic iron overload leads to oxidative stress, fibrosis, and eventually **micronodular cirrhosis**, which significantly increases the risk of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) [1]. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Classic Triad:** "Bronze Diabetes" (Skin pigmentation, Diabetes Mellitus, and Cirrhosis) [1]. * **Arthropathy:** Characteristically involves the 2nd and 3rd metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints with "hook-like" osteophytes. * **Cardiac Involvement:** Can lead to restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy and arrhythmias. * **Diagnosis:** Best initial test is **Transferrin Saturation** (>45%); Gold standard is **MRI (T2*)** or Liver Biopsy (Perls' Prussian Blue stain) [2]. * **Treatment:** Therapeutic phlebotomy is the mainstay of management [2].

Question 284: A 61-year-old man presents with a 5-year history of pain in both legs during exercise. He has been treated for diabetes for 8 years and his fasting blood glucose is 280 mg/dL. Which of the following best explains the pathogenesis of leg pain in this patient?

A. Atherosclerosis (Correct Answer)
B. Malignant hypertension
C. Microaneurysms
D. Peripheral neuropathy

Explanation: The patient presents with classic **intermittent claudication** (pain in legs during exercise, relieved by rest), a hallmark of **Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)** [1]. **1. Why Atherosclerosis is correct:** Diabetes mellitus is a major independent risk factor for **atherosclerosis**. Chronic hyperglycemia leads to endothelial dysfunction, increased oxidative stress, and the formation of Advanced Glycation End-products (AGEs). These processes accelerate the buildup of fibro-fatty plaques in large and medium-sized arteries (Macroangiopathy). In the lower extremities, these plaques narrow the arterial lumen, leading to ischemia during periods of high oxygen demand (exercise), which manifests as claudication [1]. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Malignant hypertension:** Characterized by severe BP elevation (usually >180/120 mmHg) with end-organ damage (papilledema, encephalopathy). It does not typically present as chronic, exercise-induced leg pain. * **Microaneurysms:** These are characteristic of **diabetic retinopathy** (Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions in the kidney are different) and involve microvascular damage, not the large-vessel occlusion seen in claudication. * **Peripheral neuropathy:** While common in diabetics, neuropathic pain is typically "burning" or "tingling" in nature, occurs at rest (often worse at night), and follows a "stocking-glove" distribution [2]. It is not specifically triggered by exercise [2]. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI):** The best initial diagnostic test for PAD. An ABI **< 0.9** is diagnostic [1]. * **Monckeberg Arteriosclerosis:** Medial calcific sclerosis common in diabetics; it causes non-compressible arteries and falsely elevated ABI readings. * **Risk Factors:** Smoking is the strongest modifiable risk factor for PAD, followed by Diabetes. * **Management:** Cilostazol (PDE-3 inhibitor) is used for symptomatic relief of claudication.

Question 285: Which of the following statements is false regarding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A. Shows a beaded appearance of the biliary tree on imaging
B. The common bile duct is almost always involved
C. It is more common in females (Correct Answer)
D. The caudate lobe undergoes hypertrophy

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)** is a chronic cholestatic liver disease characterized by inflammation and obliterative fibrosis of both intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts [1]. **1. Why Option C is the Correct (False) Statement:** Unlike many autoimmune liver diseases (like Primary Biliary Cholangitis), **PSC is more common in males**, with a male-to-female ratio of approximately **2:1** [1]. The median age at diagnosis is around 40 years [1]. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Beaded Appearance):** This is the classic radiologic hallmark. Multifocal strictures alternating with normal or dilated segments create a **"string of beads"** appearance on MRCP or ERCP. * **Option B (CBD Involvement):** In PSC, the **entire biliary tree** is typically involved. The common bile duct (CBD) is affected in the vast majority of cases, often leading to generalized cholestasis [1]. * **Option D (Caudate Lobe Hypertrophy):** Due to chronic biliary obstruction and subsequent cirrhosis, the liver undergoes structural remodeling. Similar to Budd-Chiari syndrome, the **caudate lobe often undergoes compensatory hypertrophy** while the right and left lobes may atrophy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Strong Association:** ~70-80% of patients with PSC have coexisting **Ulcerative Colitis** (UC) [1]. However, only 4-5% of UC patients develop PSC. * **Serology:** Most specific marker is **p-ANCA** (positive in 60-80%) [1]. * **Gold Standard Investigation:** **MRCP** is now the initial diagnostic test of choice (non-invasive). * **Malignancy Risk:** PSC is a major risk factor for **Cholangiocarcinoma** (10-15% lifetime risk) and Gallbladder cancer. * **Histology:** Classic finding is **"Onion-skin fibrosis"** (periductal concentric fibrosis).

Question 286: Diarrhoea is a feature of all the following conditions or treatments except:

A. Pellagra
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Antibiotic therapy
D. Steroids (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Steroids**. In clinical practice, corticosteroids (like Prednisolone or Dexamethasone) are actually used to **treat** inflammatory causes of diarrhoea (e.g., Inflammatory Bowel Disease) rather than causing it. In fact, a common side effect of steroids is constipation, not diarrhoea. **Analysis of Options:** * **Pellagra (Option A):** Characterized by the "4 Ds": **D**ermatitis, **D**iarrhoea, **D**ementia, and **D**eath. It is caused by a deficiency of Niacin (Vitamin B3) or its precursor, Tryptophan. * **Diabetes Mellitus (Option B):** Chronic diabetes leads to **autonomic neuropathy**. Damage to the enteric nervous system results in disordered intestinal motility (diabetic enteropathy), leading to "diabetic diarrhoea," which is often nocturnal and painless [3]. * **Antibiotic Therapy (Option C):** Antibiotics disrupt the normal gut flora [2]. This can lead to simple antibiotic-associated diarrhoea or the more severe **Pseudomembranous colitis** caused by *Clostridioides difficile* overgrowth [2]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Steroids and the Gut:** While steroids don't cause diarrhoea, they are notorious for causing **Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)** and gastroduodenal irritation, especially when combined with NSAIDs. 2. **Pellagra Triggers:** Can be seen in populations consuming **maize** (corn) as a staple diet (low in available niacin) or **Hartnup disease** (impaired tryptophan absorption). 3. **Diabetic Diarrhoea Treatment:** Often managed with loperamide [1] or, in cases of bacterial overgrowth, rotating antibiotics [3]. 4. **C. difficile:** The drug of choice for *C. difficile* infection is now **Oral Vancomycin** or Fidaxomicin (Metronidazole is no longer first-line for all cases).

Question 287: What is the most common cause of malabsorption?

A. Intestinal surgery
B. Gastric surgery
C. Sprue (Correct Answer)
D. Intestinal parasite

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: C. Sprue** Malabsorption is a clinical syndrome resulting from the impaired absorption of nutrients across the intestinal mucosa. Globally and historically, **Sprue** (specifically Celiac Sprue and Tropical Sprue) remains the most common cause of generalized malabsorption [1]. * **Celiac Sprue** is an immune-mediated enteropathy triggered by gluten, leading to villous atrophy and a significant reduction in the surface area available for absorption [1]. * **Tropical Sprue** is a chronic diarrheal illness (likely post-infectious) prevalent in tropical regions, characterized by megaloblastic anemia and malabsorption of fat and Vitamin B12 [2]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & B (Intestinal and Gastric Surgery):** While surgeries like Roux-en-Y gastric bypass or extensive bowel resection (Short Bowel Syndrome) cause malabsorption, they are iatrogenic and occur only in a specific subset of the population. They are not as prevalent as primary mucosal diseases. * **D (Intestinal Parasite):** While Giardia lamblia and Strongyloides can cause malabsorption, they typically present as acute or chronic diarrhea rather than the classic, widespread malabsorption syndrome seen in Sprue. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis for Celiac Disease:** Intestinal biopsy showing villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and increased intraepithelial lymphocytes [1]. * **Screening Test for Celiac:** Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-tTG) IgA antibodies [1]. * **D-Xylose Test:** Used to differentiate mucosal malabsorption (e.g., Sprue) from pancreatic insufficiency (D-xylose absorption is normal in pancreatic disease). * **Site of Absorption:** Iron is absorbed in the duodenum; Folate in the jejunum; Vitamin B12 and Bile salts in the terminal ileum.

Question 288: In chronic pancreatitis, which symptom typically appears?

A. Weight gain
B. Steatorrhea (Correct Answer)
C. Increased appetite
D. Diabetes insipidus

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Chronic Pancreatitis (CP)** is a progressive inflammatory condition leading to the irreversible destruction of pancreatic parenchyma, resulting in both exocrine and endocrine insufficiency [1]. **1. Why Steatorrhea is Correct:** Steatorrhea (bulky, foul-smelling, oily stools) is a hallmark of **exocrine pancreatic insufficiency**. In CP, the destruction of acinar cells leads to a significant decrease in the secretion of digestive enzymes, particularly **pancreatic lipase**. Steatorrhea typically manifests only when more than **90%** of the pancreatic exocrine function is lost. Because lipase is essential for fat digestion, undigested fats remain in the intestinal lumen, leading to malabsorption. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Weight gain:** Patients with CP typically experience **weight loss**, not gain [1]. This is due to a combination of malabsorption (maldigestion) and "sitophobia" (fear of eating) because food intake often triggers postprandial abdominal pain. * **Increased appetite:** Patients often have a decreased appetite due to chronic pain and the systemic inflammatory state. * **Diabetes insipidus:** This is a disorder of ADH (vasopressin) and is unrelated to the pancreas. However, patients with CP frequently develop **Diabetes Mellitus** (Type 3c) due to the destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad:** Pancreatic calcifications (most specific), Steatorrhea, and Diabetes Mellitus. * **Most Common Cause:** Alcohol abuse (adults); Cystic Fibrosis (children) [1]. * **Investigation of Choice:** **MRCP** is the most sensitive non-invasive imaging [2]; **CT scan** is best for visualizing calcifications [2]. * **Fecal Elastase-1:** The most sensitive and specific non-invasive stool test for pancreatic exocrine function [2]. * **Management of Steatorrhea:** Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (PERT) taken with meals.

Question 289: All are features seen in chronic pancreatitis except?

A. Chronic persistent pain
B. Diarrhea, Steatorrhea
C. Calcification
D. Paralytic ileus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: Chronic pancreatitis is a progressive inflammatory disorder characterized by irreversible destruction of the pancreatic parenchyma, leading to both exocrine and endocrine insufficiency [1]. **Why Paralytic Ileus is the Correct Answer:** **Paralytic ileus** is a feature of **Acute Pancreatitis**, not chronic [3]. In acute pancreatitis, the intense peripancreatic inflammation causes a localized "sentinel loop" or generalized ileus due to irritation of the surrounding bowel [3]. Chronic pancreatitis, being a slow, fibrotic process, does not typically present with acute intestinal dysmotility. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Chronic persistent pain:** This is the most common symptom [1]. It is typically epigastric, radiates to the back, and is caused by increased intrapancreatic pressure, neural inflammation, and ductal obstruction. * **Diarrhea and Steatorrhea:** These occur due to **exocrine insufficiency**. Steatorrhea (foul-smelling, oily stools) typically manifests only when >90% of the pancreatic lipase-secreting capacity is lost. * **Calcification:** Intraductal calcifications are a hallmark of chronic pancreatitis (especially alcoholic and tropical types) [2]. They are easily visualized on a plain X-ray or CT scan and are considered pathognomonic [2]. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad:** Pancreatic calcification, steatorrhea, and diabetes mellitus (seen in advanced cases). * **Most Common Cause:** Alcohol abuse (Adults); Cystic Fibrosis (Children). * **Investigation of Choice:** **MRCP** is the most sensitive non-invasive test for ductal changes; **CT scan** is best for visualizing calcifications [2]. * **Fecal Elastase-1:** The most sensitive and specific non-invasive screening test for exocrine insufficiency [2]. * **TIGAR-O classification:** Used to categorize risk factors (Toxic-metabolic, Idiopathic, Genetic, Autoimmune, Recurrent/Severe acute pancreatitis, Obstructive).

Question 290: An alcoholic male presents to the clinic with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back which is relieved by bending forwards. The pain is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. On examination, a bluish-grey discoloration of the flank is seen. What is this sign referred to as?

A. Grey Turner Sign (Correct Answer)
B. Cullen's Sign
C. Ballance's Sign
D. Alvarado's Sign

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: A. Grey Turner Sign** The clinical presentation of severe epigastric pain radiating to the back [1], relieved by leaning forward, is classic for **Acute Pancreatitis** [2]. In severe cases, pancreatic enzymes cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage. This blood tracks along the extraperitoneal tissue planes to the subcutaneous tissue of the **flanks**, manifesting as bluish-grey discoloration known as **Grey Turner Sign**. It typically takes 24–48 hours to appear and indicates necrotizing pancreatitis with a high mortality rate [3]. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Cullen's Sign:** This refers to periumbilical ecchymosis (bluish discoloration around the navel). Like Grey Turner sign, it indicates retroperitoneal hemorrhage (e.g., pancreatitis, ruptured ectopic pregnancy), but the location is central rather than the flanks. * **C. Ballance's Sign:** This is a physical exam finding in **splenic rupture**, characterized by fixed dullness to percussion in the left flank and shifting dullness in the right flank. * **D. Alvarado's Sign:** This is not a sign but a **scoring system** (MANTRELS) used to diagnose Acute Appendicitis based on symptoms, signs, and laboratory findings. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Fox’s Sign:** Ecchymosis over the inguinal ligament (seen in hemorrhagic pancreatitis). * **Cullen and Grey Turner signs** are highly specific but have low sensitivity; their presence signifies a poor prognosis (Modified Glasgow or Ranson Criteria) [2]. * **Most common cause of Acute Pancreatitis:** Gallstones (overall), Alcohol (second most common, but most common in males). * **Investigation of Choice:** Contrast-Enhanced CT (CECT) abdomen (ideally done after 72 hours of symptom onset to assess necrosis) [3].

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Practice Questions

Malabsorption Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pancreatitis (Acute and Chronic)

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

Practice Questions

Liver Diseases and Cirrhosis

Practice Questions

Viral Hepatitis

Practice Questions

Biliary Tract Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Motility Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Malignancies

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free