Gastroenterology — MCQs

Gastroenterology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1271: Which intervention should Nurse Bryan include in the care plan for Pierre, a client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis under his care?

A. Administration of vasopressin and insertion of a balloon tamponade
B. Preparation for a paracentesis and administration of diuretics
C. Dietary plan of a low-fat diet and increased fluid intake to 2,000 ml/day
D. Maintain NPO status and use an NG tube. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Maintain NPO status and use an NG tube.*** - Maintaining **NPO (nil per os) status** is crucial in acute pancreatitis to **rest the pancreas** and prevent further stimulation of enzyme secretion [1]. - An **NG tube** may be used for **gastric decompression** in cases of severe nausea, vomiting, or paralytic ileus to reduce abdominal distention and discomfort. *Administration of vasopressin and insertion of a balloon tamponade* - **Vasopressin** and **balloon tamponade** are interventions typically used for **esophageal variceal bleeding**, not directly for acute pancreatitis. - While pancreatitis can sometimes cause complications that might affect the gastrointestinal tract, these are not initial or direct treatments for the pancreatitis itself. *Preparation for a paracentesis and administration of diuretics* - **Paracentesis** and **diuretics** are interventions primarily used to manage **ascites**, which is fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity. - While severe pancreatitis can sometimes lead to ascites, these are not primary treatments for acute pancreatitis itself but rather for a specific complication. *Dietary plan of a low-fat diet and increased fluid intake to 2,000 ml/day* - A **low-fat diet** is appropriate for long-term management of chronic pancreatitis or after recovery from acute pancreatitis, but not during the **acute NPO phase**. - While **fluid intake** is important to prevent dehydration, the specific amount of **2,000 ml/day** may not be sufficient or appropriate depending on the patient's hydration status and fluid loss, and it doesn't address the immediate need for pancreatic rest.

Question 1272: Which complication is most commonly associated with prepyloric ulcers?

A. Bleeding (Correct Answer)
B. Gastric outlet obstruction
C. Penetration
D. Perforation

Explanation: ***Bleeding*** - **Upper gastrointestinal bleeding** is the most common and often the most life-threatening complication of prepyloric ulcers. - This can manifest as **hematemesis** (vomiting blood) or **melena** (black, tarry stools). *Penetration* - This occurs when the ulcer erodes through the gastric wall into an adjacent organ, such as the pancreas or liver. - While a serious complication, it is **less common** than bleeding. *Gastric outlet obstruction* - This complication typically results from chronic inflammation, scarring, or edema at or near the pylorus. - While possible with severe prepyloric ulcers, it is **not the most frequent** presentation of a complication. *Perforation* - This involves the ulcer creating a hole through the entire wall of the stomach, leading to the leakage of gastric contents into the abdominal cavity. - While a life-threatening emergency, **perforation is less common** than bleeding.

Question 1273: Gastrin-secreting tumors (gastrinomas) are most commonly found in which location?

A. Liver
B. Stomach antrum
C. Duodenum or pancreas (Correct Answer)
D. Small intestine (jejunum/ileum)

Explanation: Duodenum or pancreas - The majority, approximately 80%, of gastrinomas are found in the duodenum or pancreas [1]. - These tumors secrete excessive gastrin, leading to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome [1]. Stomach antrum - The stomach antrum contains G cells that produce gastrin, but primary gastrinomas rarely originate here. - While G-cell hyperplasia can occur in the antrum, it is distinct from a gastrin-secreting tumor (gastrinoma). Liver - The liver is a common site for metastases from gastrinomas, but it is not typically the primary site of tumor origin [1]. - Primary liver cancers are usually hepatocellular carcinomas or cholangiocarcinomas, which do not secrete gastrin. Small intestine (jejunum/ileum) - Gastrinomas are only rarely found in the more distal parts of the small intestine, such as the jejunum or ileum. - The duodenum and pancreas are the predominant locations for these neuroendocrine tumors due to embryological development and cell differentiation.

Question 1274: A patient presents with multiple secondary types of lesions in the liver, non-responding diarrhea, and flushing. It is most probably due to a lesion in:

A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Small intestine (Correct Answer)
D. Large intestine

Explanation: ***Small intestine*** - The presence of **non-responding diarrhea** and **flushing** suggests a neuroendocrine tumor, particularly one that secretes **somatostatin**, commonly associated with the small intestine [1]. - The **multiple liver lesions** often indicate metastasis from an intestinal primary, further supporting a lesion in the small intestine [1]. *Liver* - While liver lesions are present, they are **secondary** and not the primary source of symptoms, which are more indicative of a gastrointestinal origin [1]. - Liver lesions alone do not typically cause **flushing** or **non-responding diarrhea** without an associated primary tumor in the intestine. *Stomach* - Gastric lesions can cause various symptoms but are less commonly associated with **flushing** and **diarrhea**, particularly of the non-responsive type seen here. - Stomach-specific conditions often relate more to **ulcerations** or bleeding than the systemic endocrine symptoms presented. *Large intestine* - While lesions in the large intestine can lead to **diarrhea**, they do not often present with **flushing** or involve multiple liver lesions. - This type of presentation is more characteristic of small intestinal involvement, especially in cases of **carcinoid syndrome** from neuroendocrine tumors [1].

Question 1275: Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic gastritis?

A. H. Pylori
B. Pernicious anaemia
C. Gastric ulcer (Correct Answer)
D. Overuse of salicylates

Explanation: ***Overuse of salicylates*** - Salicylates can cause **acute gastritis** [1] but are not commonly associated with chronic gastritis. - Chronic gastritis is typically linked to **long-term irritation** rather than with the short-term use of salicylates. *Gastric ulcer* - Gastric ulcers are a consequence of chronic gastritis rather than a cause; they often result from the long-term **inflammation** of the gastric lining [1]. - They create a cycle where **chronic irritation** leads to ulceration, worsening gastritis. *Pernicious anaemia* - Pernicious anaemia can lead to **chronic atrophic gastritis** [1], which is a form of chronic gastritis but is not a primary cause. - It is associated with **autoimmune processes** affecting gastric mucosa and vitamin B12 absorption. *H. Pylori* - Helicobacter pylori infection is a well-recognized cause of **chronic gastritis** across the globe [1]. - It leads to persistent **inflammatory changes** and is a key pathogen in the pathogenesis of chronic gastritis [1].

Question 1276: A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and the presence of urobilinogen in urine. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?

A. Gilbert's syndrome
B. Dubin Johnson syndrome (Correct Answer)
C. Crigler Najjar syndrome
D. Hemolytic Jaundice

Explanation: ***Dubin Johnson syndrome*** - This syndrome primarily causes **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a defect in bilirubin excretion from hepatocytes. - The presence of **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** and **urobilinogen** in urine makes Dubin-Johnson syndrome the least likely diagnosis. *Crigler Najjar syndrome* - This is a rare genetic disorder characterized by **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a severe deficiency or absence of the enzyme **uridine diphosphate-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT1A1)**. - While it causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the presence of **urobilinogen** indicates some bilirubin conjugation and excretion into the gut, making this less likely than other causes of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia with urobilinogen. *Gilbert's syndrome* - This common, mild genetic disorder causes **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to reduced activity of the **UGT1A1 enzyme**, leading to decreased bilirubin conjugation. - Since some conjugation still occurs, the presence of **urobilinogen** (formed from conjugated bilirubin in the gut) is consistent with this diagnosis. *Hemolytic Jaundice* - **Hemolysis** leads to an increased breakdown of red blood cells, producing a large amount of **unconjugated bilirubin** that overwhelms the liver's conjugating capacity. - The liver still conjugates some of this bilirubin, which is then excreted into the gut, leading to increased **urobilinogen** formation and excretion in urine.

Question 1277: What has contributed to the reduction of duodenal ulcer morbidity in the last decade?

A. Use of proton pump inhibitors
B. Eradication of H. pylori (Correct Answer)
C. Lifestyle modifications
D. None of the options

Explanation: ### Eradication of H. pylori - The widespread success of **H. pylori eradication therapies** has directly addressed the primary cause of most duodenal ulcers [1]. - By eliminating the bacterial infection, the recurrence rate of ulcers dramatically decreases, leading to reduced morbidity [1]. *Use of proton pump inhibitors* - While **proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** are highly effective in healing existing ulcers and managing symptoms, they do not address the underlying cause of *H. pylori* infection. - PPIs primarily reduce acid secretion but do not prevent the recurrence of ulcers driven by *H. pylori* [1]. *Lifestyle modifications* - **Lifestyle modifications** such as reducing stress, avoiding spicy foods, and quitting smoking can help manage symptoms and prevent exacerbations, but they are not primary treatments for duodenal ulcers. - These changes contribute to overall well-being but do not directly eliminate the main pathogenic factor, *H. pylori* [1]. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **eradication of *H. pylori*** has demonstrably contributed to the reduction of duodenal ulcer morbidity in recent decades [1]. - The link between *H. pylori* and duodenal ulcers is well-established, and effective treatment for the infection has transformed ulcer management [1].

Question 1278: Which of the following is a contraindication for medical management of gallstones?

A. Normal functioning gallbladder
B. Small stones
C. Radiopaque stones (Correct Answer)
D. Radiolucent stones

Explanation: ***Radiopaque stones*** - **Radiopaque stones** are typically **calcium-rich** and do not dissolve with oral bile acid therapy [1]. - Medical dissolution therapy is primarily effective for cholesterol-rich stones, which are often radiolucent [1]. *Normal functioning gallbladder* - A **normal functioning gallbladder** is actually a prerequisite for medical dissolution therapy, as it needs to fill and empty to allow bile acids to reach the stones. - If the gallbladder is non-functioning, oral dissolution agents cannot effectively reach and act on the gallstones. *Small stones* - **Small stones** (typically <1.5 cm) are more amenable to medical dissolution therapy due to their higher surface area-to-volume ratio, facilitating faster dissolution [2]. - Therefore, small stones are an indication for, not a contraindication to, medical management. *Radiolucent stones* - **Radiolucent stones** are primarily composed of cholesterol, making them good candidates for dissolution with oral bile acid therapy [2]. - This characteristic indicates suitability for medical management, not a contraindication.

Question 1279: Discriminant score is used for management of?

A. Viral hepatitis
B. Alcoholic hepatitis (Correct Answer)
C. Variceal bleeding
D. Weight loss

Explanation: ***Alcoholic hepatitis*** - The **Maddrey Discriminant Function (MDF) score** is a widely used tool specifically for assessing the severity of alcoholic hepatitis [1]. - scores greater than or equal to 32 indicate **severe alcoholic hepatitis** and guide the decision for corticosteroid therapy. *Viral hepatitis* - Management of viral hepatitis (e.g., Hepatitis B or C) typically involves antiviral medications, and severity assessment relies on viral load, liver biopsy, and clinical features, not the **discriminant score**. - While liver function tests are important, specific discriminant scores are not the primary tool for guiding treatment decisions in **viral hepatitis**. *Variceal bleeding* - Prognostic scores for variceal bleeding include the **Child-Pugh score** and **MELD score**, which assess liver function and predict mortality in cirrhosis, but not the **discriminant score**. - Management focuses on endoscopic interventions and medications to prevent re-bleeding, not on a discriminant score. *Weight loss* - Weight loss is a symptom, not a diagnosis requiring a specific discriminant score for management. - Its management involves identifying and addressing the **underlying cause**, which can be diverse and does not typically involve such a score.

Question 1280: In a young, otherwise healthy patient with a newly suspected diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease, what would be the most appropriate course of action in the emergency department?

A. Immediate referral for endoscopy
B. Begin combination therapy with an H2 receptor antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, and antacids
C. Begin symptomatic and therapeutic treatment with a proton pump inhibitor (e.g., omeprazole) (Correct Answer)
D. Begin empiric treatment of H. pylori with a triple antibiotic regimen after confirmation of infection

Explanation: **Begin symptomatic and therapeutic treatment with a proton pump inhibitor (e.g., omeprazole)** - In a stable patient with suspected peptic ulcer disease, **empiric therapy with a PPI** is the most appropriate initial step in the emergency department for symptom relief and healing [1]. - PPIs effectively reduce **gastric acid secretion**, promoting ulcer healing and alleviating pain, while further diagnostic workup can be planned [1]. *Immediate referral for endoscopy* - While endoscopy is the gold standard for diagnosing peptic ulcers, it is **not generally an emergency procedure** in a stable, otherwise healthy patient without signs of complications such as bleeding or perforation [2]. - Endoscopy is typically reserved for cases where initial medical management fails, or if there are **alarm features** (e.g., weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding). *Begin combination therapy with an H2 receptor antagonist, proton pump inhibitor, and antacids* - This combination is **excessive and generally unnecessary** for initial management, as PPIs alone are highly effective. - **Polypharmacy** increases the risk of side effects and may confuse subsequent diagnostic assessments without offering significant additional benefit in an acute setting. *Begin empiric treatment of H. pylori with a triple antibiotic regimen after confirmation of infection* - **Empiric H. pylori treatment** without confirmation of infection is not recommended, as it can lead to unnecessary antibiotic exposure and drug resistance. - **Confirmation of H. pylori infection** (via breath test, stool antigen, or biopsy) should precede, or ideally follow with specific testing, before initiating antibiotic therapy [1].

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Practice Questions

Malabsorption Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pancreatitis (Acute and Chronic)

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

Practice Questions

Liver Diseases and Cirrhosis

Practice Questions

Viral Hepatitis

Practice Questions

Biliary Tract Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Motility Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Malignancies

Practice Questions

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