Gastroenterology — MCQs

Gastroenterology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1211: All of the following may lead to gall bladder carcinoma except which of the following?

A. Gall Bladder Polyps
B. Typhoid carriers
C. Echinococcus Granulosus Infection (Correct Answer)
D. Exposure to carcinogens like nitrosamine

Explanation: ***Echinococcus Granulosus Infection*** - Echinococcus granulosus is primarily associated with **hydatid cyst formation**, not directly linked to gallbladder carcinoma. - This infection typically affects the **liver** rather than inducing malignant transformation in the gallbladder. *Typhoid carriers* - Chronic infection with **Salmonella typhi** in carriers can cause **gallbladder inflammation** and is a risk factor for gallbladder cancer. - Typhoid carriers retain the bacteria in the gallbladder, leading to chronic irritation and potentially malignant changes. *Gall Bladder Polyps* - Certain types of gallbladder polyps, especially those larger than **1 cm**, have a significant risk of undergoing malignant transformation. - They are associated with **chronic inflammation** and may progress to cancer if not monitored. *Exposure to carcinogens like nitrosamine* - Nitrosamines are known **carcinogens** that can induce protein modifications leading to DNA damage, contributing to gallbladder cancer. - Long-term exposure to such chemicals can result in **cellular mutations** in the gallbladder epithelial lining.

Question 1212: A patient presents with difficulty with swallowing liquids but not solids. The best investigation to make a diagnosis is

A. Endoscopy
B. Endoscopic ultrasound
C. Manometry (Correct Answer)
D. PET CT

Explanation: ***Manometry*** - **Esophageal manometry** measures the pressure and coordination of muscle contractions in the esophagus, which is crucial for diagnosing motility disorders like **achalasia** [1] or **esophageal spasm** [2] that can cause difficulty swallowing liquids. - The symptom of difficulty swallowing liquids but not solids (**paradoxical dysphagia**) is characteristic of a primary esophageal motility disorder rather than a structural obstruction [1]. *Endoscopy* - **Endoscopy** is primarily used to visualize the esophagus and stomach for structural abnormalities such as **strictures**, **tumors**, or **inflammation** [1]. - While it can rule out structural causes, it is less effective for diagnosing purely functional or motility disorders [1]. *Endoscopic ultrasound* - **Endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)** provides detailed imaging of the esophageal wall and surrounding structures, helping to stage cancers or identify extrinsic compression. - It is not the primary investigation for assessing **esophageal motility**. *PET CT* - **PET CT** is primarily used in oncology for **cancer staging**, recurrence detection, and assessing metabolic activity of lesions. - It has limited utility in the initial diagnosis of a **swallowing disorder**, especially one indicating a motility issue.

Question 1213: If 90% of the jejunum and ileum is removed, which of the following features will NOT be seen?

A. Steatorrhoea
B. Diarrhoea
C. Weight gain (Correct Answer)
D. Megaloblastic anemia

Explanation: ***Weight gain*** - Extensive **resection of the jejunum and ileum** (90% removal) significantly reduces the absorptive surface area of the small intestine [3]. - This severe malabsorption of nutrients, including fats and carbohydrates, would lead to **weight loss** due to calorie deficit, not weight gain [2]. *Steatorrhoea* - The ileum is crucial for the absorption of **bile acids**; its extensive removal leads to bile acid malabsorption [1]. - Reduced bile acid reabsorption impairs **fat emulsification and absorption**, resulting in increased fat in the stool and causing steatorrhoea [1]. *Diarrhoea* - Loss of significant length of the ileum and jejunum reduces the ability to absorb water and electrolytes, leading to increased luminal fluid [3]. - The unabsorbed bile acids reaching the colon also act as **secretagogues**, further contributing to osmotic and secretory diarrhea. *Megaloblastic anemia* - The terminal ileum is the primary site for the absorption of **vitamin B12** (cobalamin), which binds to intrinsic factor produced by the stomach. - Extensive ileal resection would severely impair vitamin B12 absorption, leading to a deficiency that manifests as **macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia** [2].

Question 1214: Which of the following is true about menetrier's disease

A. Atrophied mucosal folds are seen
B. It is premalignant condition
C. There is decreased gastric acid secretion (Correct Answer)
D. It causes increased gastric acid secretion

Explanation: ***It is a premalignant condition*** - Menetrier's disease is characterized by **hyperplastic gastric mucosa** and is considered a **premalignant condition** due to its association with gastric cancers. - Regular surveillance and monitoring are recommended because of this increased risk for malignancy. *Affects the stomach and small intestines* - Menetrier's disease primarily **affects the stomach**, specifically leading to excessive growth of the gastric mucosa. - It does not typically involve the **small intestines**, which differentiates it from other gastrointestinal diseases. *There is increased gastric acid secretion* - In Menetrier's disease, there is actually a **decreased gastric acid secretion** due to the alteration of gastric mucosal structure. - This condition leads to **hypochlorhydria**, contrasting with conditions that increase acid secretion like Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. *Atrophied mucosal folds are seen* - Menetrier's disease is marked by **hypertrophy of the gastric folds**, not atrophy, resulting in **enlarged rugae** within the stomach. - Atrophied mucosal folds are more associated with conditions like chronic atrophic gastritis.

Question 1215: What is the primary clinical application of the Rockall score?

A. Upper GI bleeding (Correct Answer)
B. Lower GI bleeding
C. Hepatic encephalopathy
D. IBD

Explanation: ***Upper GI bleeding*** - The **Rockall score** is a clinical risk assessment tool specifically designed to predict **re-bleeding** and **mortality** in patients admitted with **acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding** [1]. - It uses clinical parameters (age, shock, comorbidities) and endoscopic findings (diagnosis, stigmata of recent hemorrhage) to stratify risk [1]. *Lower GI bleeding* - The Rockall score is **not validated** for assessing risk in **lower gastrointestinal bleeding**, which has different etiologies and clinical courses. - Other scoring systems, like the **Blatchford score** or **Glasgow-Blatchford score**, might be used for initial risk assessment in GI bleeding, but Rockall is specific to upper GI [1]. *Hepatic encephalopathy* - **Hepatic encephalopathy** is a neuropsychiatric complication of liver cirrhosis, for which the Rockall score has **no diagnostic or prognostic utility**. - Its assessment involves grading the severity of neurological symptoms and identifying precipitating factors. *IBD* - Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis, is a chronic inflammatory condition of the GI tract. - The Rockall score is **irrelevant** in the assessment or management of **IBD**, which uses specific disease activity indices.

Question 1216: What is a potential risk factor for ulcerative colitis?

A. Ashkenazi Jewish ethnicity
B. High refined sugar diet
C. Family history of inflammatory bowel disease
D. Age 15-30 years (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Age 15-30 years - The onset of **ulcerative colitis** most commonly occurs between the ages of **15 and 30 years**, representing a key demographic risk factor. - A secondary peak in incidence is observed in people aged **50-70 years**, but the younger age range is a more prominent risk factor. *Family history of inflammatory bowel disease* - While a **family history** of IBD is a risk factor for both **Crohn's disease** and ulcerative colitis, it is not the *most* direct or distinctive potential risk factor compared to the characteristic age of onset. - Genetic predisposition plays a role, with several loci associated with IBD, but specific age demographics are often more directly indicative of disease patterns. *Ashkenazi Jewish ethnicity* - Individuals of **Ashkenazi Jewish descent** have a statistically higher risk of developing **both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis**. - This is a significant genetic risk factor, but age is a more pervasive demographic risk applicable across broader populations. *High refined sugar diet* - While dietary factors, including a diet high in **refined sugars** and processed foods, have been implicated in the **pathogenesis of IBD**, their direct causal link is still under continuous research and is not as firmly established as genetic or demographic risk factors [1]. - Diet is considered a modifiable risk factor that can influence disease activity and severity, rather than primary initiation.

Question 1217: Hepatic Encephalopathy is predisposed by all, Except:

A. Constipation
B. GI Bleeding
C. Dehydration
D. Hyperkalemia (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hyperkalemia*** - **Hyperkalemia** is not a known trigger for hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, **hypokalemia** is a more common electrolyte disturbance that can precipitate it due to its effect on renal ammonia excretion. - Electrolyte imbalances that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy usually involve **hypokalemia**, **hyponatremia**, or **alkalosis**, which affect **ammonia metabolism** and neuronal excitability [1]. *Dehydration* - **Dehydration** can lead to **reduced renal perfusion**, impairing the kidneys' ability to clear **ammonia** and other toxins, thus increasing their concentration in the blood. - It also contributes to **hemoconcentration**, elevating blood **ammonia levels** and increasing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy [1]. *Constipation* - **Constipation** allows for a longer transit time of stool in the colon, providing more opportunity for **intestinal bacteria** to produce **ammonia** from protein breakdown [1]. - The increased production and absorption of ammonia from the gut contribute significantly to the **nitrogenous load** in the bloodstream, predisposing to hepatic encephalopathy [1]. *GI Bleeding* - **Gastrointestinal bleeding** (GI bleeding) introduces a large protein load (blood) into the GI tract, which is then broken down by bacterial action. - This breakdown generates a significant amount of **ammonia** and other nitrogenous compounds, which are then absorbed into the bloodstream, overwhelming the impaired liver's ability to detoxify them and precipitating hepatic encephalopathy [1].

Question 1218: In which non-neoplastic condition is CEA commonly elevated?

A. Pancreatitis
B. Inflammatory bowel disease (Correct Answer)
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Liver disease

Explanation: ***Inflammatory bowel disease*** - **Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)** levels can be elevated in conditions involving active inflammation and rapid cell turnover within the gastrointestinal tract, such as **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)** [1]. - While CEA is primarily a tumor marker, its elevation in IBD reflects the extensive mucosal inflammation and repair processes, rather than malignancy. *Hemolytic anemia* - **Hemolytic anemia** involves the destruction of red blood cells and does not typically lead to elevated CEA levels. - Elevated CEA is associated with certain epithelial conditions, not primary hematologic disorders. *Pancreatitis* - While **pancreatitis** can cause elevated levels of other markers like amylase and lipase, it is not consistently associated with elevated CEA. - CEA elevation in pancreatic conditions usually points towards a **pancreatic malignancy**. *Liver disease* - **Liver disease**, particularly severe inflammation or cirrhosis, can sometimes cause a mild elevation in CEA due to impaired clearance or increased production in damaged tissue. - However, levels are typically not as high or consistently elevated as in IBD, and significant elevation often prompts investigation for **primary hepatic or metastatic malignancy**.

Question 1219: In which portion of the esophagus do esophageal varices primarily occur?

A. All sites
B. Upper
C. Lower (Correct Answer)
D. Middle

Explanation: **Lower** - Esophageal varices are most commonly found in the **distal (lower) third of the esophagus** [1] because this is where the portal venous system (short gastric and left gastric veins) anastomoses with the systemic venous system (white esophageal veins draining into the azygous system) [1]. - Increased portal pressure (e.g., in **portal hypertension** due to liver cirrhosis) causes blood to back up into these collateral vessels, leading to their dilation and formation of varices, particularly prominent in the lower esophagus [1]. *Upper* - While some collateral circulation exists throughout the esophagus, varices are not predominantly found in the upper portion as the primary portosystemic anastomoses responsible for variceal formation are more distal. - Varices in the upper esophagus are less common and typically less clinically significant in terms of bleeding risk. *Middle* - The middle portion of the esophagus has some venous drainage, but it is not the primary site for the significant portosystemic collaterals that lead to the formation of large, high-risk varices. - Varices can extend into the middle esophagus, but their origin and highest concentration are usually in the lower third. *All sites* - While varices can technically be found at various points along the esophagus, stating "all sites" is inaccurate because they have a **marked predilection for the lower third** due to specific anatomical venous connections [1]. - The risk of rupture and bleeding is also highest in the larger varices found in the lower esophagus [1].

Question 1220: Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?

A. Esophageal varices
B. Gastric carcinoma
C. Crohn's disease (Correct Answer)
D. Ulcerative colitis

Explanation: ***Crohn's disease*** - Wireless capsule endoscopy is primarily used to visualize the **small bowel**, which is the main site of involvement in Crohn's disease [3]. - It helps detect **mucosal inflammation**, ulcers, and strictures that may not be accessible by conventional endoscopy [1]. *Esophageal varices* - **Esophageal varices** are best visualized and treated with conventional **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)**, which allows for direct intervention [2]. - Capsule endoscopy is not the preferred method due to its inability to adequately distend the esophagus or perform therapeutic maneuvers [4]. *Gastric carcinoma* - Diagnosing **gastric carcinoma** requires visualization of the stomach lining, typically achieved through **conventional upper endoscopy** with biopsies [2]. - The capsule may pass too quickly through the stomach or miss subtle lesions, and it cannot obtain tissue samples. *Ulcerative colitis* - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the **colon**, which is visualized using a **colonoscopy** [3]. - While capsule endoscopy can visualize the small bowel, it is not effective for examining the colon due to insufficient imaging of the entire large intestine and lack of biopsy capabilities.

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Practice Questions

Malabsorption Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pancreatitis (Acute and Chronic)

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

Practice Questions

Liver Diseases and Cirrhosis

Practice Questions

Viral Hepatitis

Practice Questions

Biliary Tract Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Motility Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Malignancies

Practice Questions

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