Gastroenterology — MCQs

Gastroenterology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1081: Which of the following is the most common cause of esophageal dysphagia?

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
B. Peptic stricture (Correct Answer)
C. Esophageal cancer
D. Achalasia

Explanation: ***Peptic stricture*** - **Peptic strictures** are fibrous bands that narrow the esophageal lumen, most commonly resulting from chronic **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** [1]. - They lead to dysphagia by physically obstructing the passage of food, making it the most frequent cause of mechanical esophageal dysphagia [2]. *Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)* - While **GERD** is the underlying cause for many peptic strictures, it primarily presents with **pyrosis (heartburn)** and **regurgitation** [1]. - Without a stricture or severe inflammation, GERD itself causes dysphagia less commonly than a resultant peptic stricture would. *Esophageal cancer* - **Esophageal cancer** can cause significant dysphagia, especially for solids, and is a serious concern, but it is less common overall than dysphagia caused by peptic strictures [1]. - Often accompanied by other symptoms like **weight loss**, **anemia**, and **odynophagia**, which differentiate it. *Achalasia* - **Achalasia** is a motility disorder where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, leading to pressure build-up and dysphagia for both solids and liquids [3]. - Though a significant cause of dysphagia, its prevalence is lower compared to peptic strictures resulting from widespread GERD.

Question 1082: A 60-year-old man presents with melena and dizziness. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and heart rate is 110 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A. IV fluids and blood transfusion (Correct Answer)
B. Endoscopic biopsy
C. Colonoscopy
D. Oral proton pump inhibitors

Explanation: IV fluids and blood transfusion - The patient presents with **melena**, **dizziness**, and signs of **hypovolemic shock** (low blood pressure, high heart rate), indicating significant gastrointestinal bleeding [1]. - **Fluid resuscitation** with intravenous crystalloids and **blood transfusion** are critical initial steps to stabilize hemodynamics and address blood loss [1]. *Endoscopic biopsy* - An **endoscopic biopsy** is a diagnostic procedure used to determine the cause of bleeding but is not the most appropriate *initial* management for an acutely hemorrhaging, unstable patient [1]. - Prioritizing hemodynamic stability is crucial before pursuing definitive diagnostic procedures that might be delayed or complicated by the patient's condition. *Colonoscopy* - **Colonoscopy** is primarily used to investigate lower gastrointestinal bleeding and is not the initial management for upper GI bleeding suspected from melena. - Like endoscopic biopsy, it is a diagnostic procedure and would be contraindicated in an unstable patient until initial resuscitation has been performed. *Oral proton pump inhibitors* - While **proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** are often used in the management of upper GI bleeding to reduce acid secretion and promote clot stability, **oral administration** is insufficient for an actively bleeding patient who may have impaired absorption or be NPO (nil per os) [2]. - Intravenous PPIs might be considered after initial resuscitation, but they are not the primary, immediate intervention to correct hypovolemic shock [2].

Question 1083: How does achalasia lead to dysphagia?

A. Increased lower esophageal sphincter pressure (Correct Answer)
B. Esophageal stricture
C. Neuromuscular dysfunction of the esophagus
D. Decreased esophageal motility

Explanation: ***Increased lower esophageal sphincter pressure*** - In achalasia, the **lower esophageal sphincter (LES)** fails to relax properly during swallowing, leading to a functional obstruction [1]. - This persistent high pressure prevents food from passing easily from the esophagus into the stomach, causing **dysphagia**. *Esophageal stricture* - An **esophageal stricture** is a narrowing of the esophagus, often due to inflammation, scarring, or malignancy [2]. - While it causes dysphagia, achalasia is primarily a **motility disorder** involving the LES, not a fixed structural narrowing. *Neuromuscular dysfunction of the esophagus* - This is a broad term that technically encompasses achalasia but does not directly explain *how* it causes dysphagia. - The specific dysfunction in achalasia involves the **loss of inhibitory neurons** in the myenteric plexus, leading to impaired LES relaxation and uncoordinated esophageal contractions [1]. *Decreased esophageal motility* - While achalasia does involve **aperistalsis** (lack of coordinated contractions) in the esophageal body, contributing to food retention, the primary obstructive mechanism is the **failure of LES relaxation** [1]. - Decreased motility alone, without LES dysfunction, would typically lead to different patterns of dysphagia or regurgitation.

Question 1084: A 65-year-old male presents with chronic constipation and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy reveals a constricting mass in the sigmoid colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Diverticulosis
C. Colorectal cancer (Correct Answer)
D. Irritable bowel syndrome

Explanation: Colorectal cancer - The combination of **chronic constipation**, **unintentional weight loss**, and a **constricting mass** in the sigmoid colon on colonoscopy are highly indicative of colorectal cancer [1]. - Sigmoid colon is a common site for colorectal cancer, as over 65% of tumors occur in the rectosigmoid region [1]. - Sigmoid colon is a common site for colorectal cancer, and a **constricting lesion** suggests a malignant process, often presenting with colicky pain or weight loss [1]. *Ulcerative colitis* - Typically presents with **bloody diarrhea**, abdominal pain, and tenesmus, not primarily chronic constipation. - While it can increase the risk of colorectal cancer, the initial presentation with a **constricting mass** isn't characteristic of active ulcerative colitis. *Diverticulosis* - Usually **asymptomatic** or presents with episodes of diverticulitis (abdominal pain, fever), not primarily chronic constipation and weight loss with a constricting mass. - A constricting mass is not a typical finding for uncomplicated diverticulosis. *Irritable bowel syndrome* - Characterized by chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habits (constipation, diarrhea, or both), but it does not cause **unintentional weight loss** or a **constricting mass** on colonoscopy [2]. - IBS is a **functional disorder** and does not involve structural abnormalities or malignancy [2].

Question 1085: A 45-year-old female presents with chronic heartburn and dysphagia. Endoscopy reveals Barrett's esophagus. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. High-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. Nissen fundoplication
C. Esophagectomy
D. Surveillance endoscopy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Surveillance endoscopy - Barrett's esophagus is a **premalignant condition** where the squamous lining of the esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium, increasing the risk of **esophageal adenocarcinoma** [1]. - **Regular endoscopic surveillance** with biopsies is crucial to monitor for **dysplasia** and early cancer, guiding timely intervention [1]. *High-dose proton pump inhibitors* - While **PPIs** are the cornerstone for managing **GERD symptoms** and preventing further esophageal damage in patients with Barrett's, they do not reverse Barrett's esophagus itself or eliminate the risk of malignant progression [1]. - They may reduce the progression rate of Barett's esophagus to **dysplasia**, but not as the primary next step. *Nissen fundoplication* - This is a surgical procedure to treat severe **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** by strengthening the lower esophageal sphincter. - It effectively treats reflux symptoms but does **not reverse existing Barrett's esophagus** or negate the need for surveillance. *Esophagectomy* - **Esophagectomy** is a major surgical procedure involving the removal of part or all of the esophagus and is typically reserved for patients with **high-grade dysplasia** or **confirmed esophageal adenocarcinoma**. - It is an overly aggressive and inappropriate initial management step for uncomplicated Barrett's esophagus without advanced dysplasia or cancer.

Question 1086: All of the following are potential complications of untreated GERD, EXCEPT which of the following?

A. Esophageal adenocarcinoma
B. Esophageal stricture
C. Barrett's esophagus
D. Esophageal varices (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Esophageal varices*** - **Esophageal varices** are dilated veins in the lower esophagus, almost exclusively caused by **portal hypertension** from conditions like cirrhosis. - They are not a direct complication of **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**; GERD deals with acid reflux, not increased portal venous pressure. *Esophageal adenocarcinoma* - **Esophageal adenocarcinoma** can develop from **Barrett's esophagus**, which is a metaplastic change in the esophageal lining caused by chronic acid exposure from GERD [1]. - Therefore, untreated GERD can progress through Barrett's esophagus to develop into this type of cancer [1]. *Esophageal stricture* - Chronic inflammation and injury from untreated GERD can lead to **fibrosis** and subsequent narrowing of the esophagus, known as an **esophageal stricture** [1]. - This stricture can cause difficulty swallowing and food impaction. *Barrett's esophagus* - **Barrett's esophagus** is a precancerous condition where the normal squamous epithelium of the esophagus is replaced by columnar epithelium due to chronic acid reflux from GERD [1]. - It is a significant risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma and directly results from long-standing GERD [1].

Question 1087: How does liver cirrhosis contribute to the development of edema?

A. Increased capillary permeability
B. Increased salt intake
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Decreased albumin production (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Decreased albumin production*** - The **liver** is the primary site of **albumin synthesis** [2]. In cirrhosis, liver damage impairs this synthetic function, leading to **hypoalbuminemia** (low serum albumin). - Albumin is a major contributor to **plasma oncotic pressure**. Reduced oncotic pressure causes fluid to shift from the intravascular space into the interstitial space, resulting in **edema and ascites** [1]. *Increased capillary permeability* - While increased capillary permeability can cause edema, it is **not the primary mechanism** by which liver cirrhosis leads to edema. - Conditions like severe inflammation or sepsis are more commonly associated with widespread increases in capillary permeability. *Increased salt intake* - Although excessive **sodium intake** can worsen edema in patients with cirrhosis, it is **not the fundamental cause** of edema related to the underlying liver disease. - The edema in cirrhosis is primarily due to fluid retention mechanisms driven by liver dysfunction, rather than mere dietary intake. *Increased cardiac output* - In advanced cirrhosis, patients often develop a **hyperdynamic circulatory state** characterized by increased cardiac output and systemic vasodilation. - While this circulatory dysfunction contributes to fluid retention through activation of neurohormonal systems, it is **not the direct cause** of edema as a primary mechanism of fluid extravasation, which is largely driven by decreased oncotic pressure and portal hypertension [3].

Question 1088: A 55-year-old man presents with intermittent epigastric pain, relieved by eating, and worsened by fasting. What is the most likely cause?

A. Cholelithiasis
B. Chronic pancreatitis
C. Peptic ulcer disease (Correct Answer)
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Explanation: ### Peptic ulcer disease - The classic presentation of **duodenal ulcers**, a common type of peptic ulcer, includes epigastric pain that is **relieved by eating** and **worsens with fasting** [1]. - This pattern is due to the buffering effect of food on gastric acid and the increased acid secretion during fasting, which irritates the ulcer. *Cholelithiasis* - Characterized by **biliary colic**, which is typically severe, intermittent right upper quadrant pain, often radiating to the back or shoulder, and frequently triggered by fatty meals. - Pain relief with eating is not a typical feature, and it does not usually worsen with fasting. *Chronic pancreatitis* - Presents with persistent or recurrent **epigastric pain** that often **radiates to the back** [2], and can be worsened by eating fatty foods. - The pain is usually not relieved by eating, and symptoms like steatorrhea and diabetes development are common later in the disease [2]. *Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)* - Primarily causes **heartburn** (burning sensation behind the sternum) and **regurgitation**, which often worsen after meals, when lying down, or bending over. - Pain is typically not relieved by eating, nor does it characteristically worsen with fasting; instead, it is often associated with acid reflux.

Question 1089: A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with a 3-month history of progressive dysphagia and weight loss. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Barium swallow
B. Endoscopy with biopsy (Correct Answer)
C. CT scan of the chest
D. Esophageal manometry

Explanation: ***Endoscopy with biopsy*** - Progressive **dysphagia** and **weight loss** in a patient with risk factors like **smoking** and age (50 years old) strongly suggest an esophageal malignancy, which requires direct visualization and tissue sampling for definitive diagnosis. - An endoscopy allows for direct visualization of the esophageal mucosa, identification of any lesions, and immediate **biopsies** for histopathological examination [1]. *Barium swallow* - While a barium swallow can identify structural abnormalities and strictures, it provides only indirect evidence and cannot reliably differentiate between **benign** and **malignant** causes of dysphagia [1]. - It does not allow for tissue sampling, which is crucial for diagnosing cancer. *CT scan of the chest* - A CT scan is primarily used for **staging** a known malignancy and assessing for local or distant **metastasis**, not for initial diagnosis of the primary lesion. - It may show a mass, but it cannot definitively diagnose the type of lesion or provide cellular information. *Esophageal manometry* - Esophageal manometry measures the **motor function** of the esophagus and is primarily used to diagnose **motility disorders** such as achalasia or esophageal spasm. - It would not be the first-line investigation for dysphagia with **red flag symptoms** like weight loss, which suggest a structural and potentially malignant cause [1].

Question 1090: A 60-year-old male presents with jaundice, pruritus, and hepatomegaly. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. An MRI shows strictures of the bile ducts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (Correct Answer)
B. Gallstones
C. Cholangitis
D. Primary biliary cholangitis

Explanation: ***Primary sclerosing cholangitis*** - The combination of **jaundice, pruritus, hepatomegaly**, elevated **alkaline phosphatase**, and characteristic **bile duct strictures** on MRI strongly points to primary sclerosing cholangitis [1]. - This condition is characterized by **inflammation and fibrosis** of the bile ducts, leading to progressive narrowing and obstruction. *Primary biliary cholangitis* - While it causes **jaundice, pruritus**, and elevated **alkaline phosphatase**, it primarily affects **small intrahepatic bile ducts** and does not typically show widespread strictures in larger bile ducts on MRI [2]. - It is more common in **middle-aged women** and is associated with **anti-mitochondrial antibodies** [2]. *Gallstones* - **Gallstones** can cause **jaundice, pruritus**, and elevated **alkaline phosphatase** if they obstruct the bile ducts. - However, MRI would typically show an **obstructing stone** rather than diffuse strictures and beads-on-a-string appearance characteristic of PSC. *Cholangitis* - **Cholangitis** refers to an infection of the bile ducts, often presenting with **fever, abdominal pain, jaundice (Charcot's triad)**, and elevated inflammatory markers. - While it can cause bile duct inflammation and some narrowing, recurrent or diffuse strictures as seen in PSC are not typical, and the primary cause is usually an **obstruction by a stone or tumor**.

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Peptic Ulcer Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

Practice Questions

Malabsorption Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pancreatitis (Acute and Chronic)

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

Practice Questions

Liver Diseases and Cirrhosis

Practice Questions

Viral Hepatitis

Practice Questions

Biliary Tract Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Motility Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Malignancies

Practice Questions

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