Stimulant Use Disorders — MCQs
Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for drug dependence?
All are symptoms of morphine withdrawal except?
A patient is admitted with insomnia, agitation, diarrhea, dilated pupils, and sweating. What is the type of poisoning?
The preferred drug for treating ADHD in a 7-year-old boy, whose father has a history of substance abuse:
Delusion of persecution and formication occur together in
Stimulant drugs are primarily given to children for the treatment of:
A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because of memory loss and difficulty walking. She has noticed personality changes, truancy from work, and lack of personal care over the past 1 year. On examination, he appears unkempt, smells of urine, and is uncooperative. He cannot recall the date or season and gets angry when asked questions. His answers are often fabricated when checked with his wife. The blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse 100/min, and he is diaphoretic and tremulous. His gait is wide-based, and motor strength and reflexes are normal. His ocular movements are normal, but there is nystagmus on lateral gaze. In the past, he has had multiple admissions for alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Difference between thyrotoxicosis and malignant hyperthermia is -
What is the primary effect of beta blockers in the management of thyroid storm?
A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family because of severe upper back pain, which he describes as ripping. The pain started suddenly 1 hour ago while he was watching television. He has hypertension for 13 years, but he is not compliant with his medications. He denies the use of nicotine, alcohol or illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), the heart rate is 110/min and the blood pressure is 182/81 mm Hg in the right arm and 155/71 mm Hg in the left arm. CT scan of the chest shows an intimal flap limited to the descending aorta. Intravenous opioid analgesia is started. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient condition?
Stimulant Use Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion for drug dependence?
- A. Taking substance in larger amounts than intended
- B. Tolerance
- C. Withdrawal symptoms
- D. Early completion of tasks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Early completion of tasks*** - This is not a recognized diagnostic criterion for **drug dependence (substance use disorder)** according to standardized diagnostic manuals like the DSM-5. - While it might reflect an individual's productivity or efficiency, it has no direct link to the compulsive drug-seeking and use behaviors characteristic of dependence. *Tolerance* - **Tolerance** is a core criterion, defined as a need for markedly increased amounts of the substance to achieve intoxication or desired effect, or a markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount of the substance. - This indicates a physiological adaptation to the presence of the drug. *Withdrawal symptoms* - **Withdrawal symptoms** refer to the characteristic physiological and psychological symptoms that occur when a person stops or reduces their use of a substance after prolonged or heavy use. - The presence of a withdrawal syndrome or taking the substance (or a closely related one) to relieve or avoid withdrawal symptoms is a key diagnostic indicator. *Taking substance in larger amounts than intended* - This criterion reflects the **impaired control** over substance use, where the individual uses the substance more often or in larger quantities than they initially intended. - It demonstrates a loss of conscious regulation over drug intake, which is a hallmark of substance dependence.
Question 2: All are symptoms of morphine withdrawal except?
- A. Yawning
- B. Lacrimation
- C. Mydriasis
- D. Fall in BP (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fall in BP*** - **Hypotension (fall in BP)** is **not** typically a symptom of opioid withdrawal; rather, **hypertension** can occur due to sympathetic overdrive. - Opioid withdrawal symptoms are primarily characterized by **hyperactivity** and increased sympathetic nervous system activity. *Mydriasis* - **Mydriasis (dilated pupils)** is a classic symptom of opioid withdrawal, resulting from reduced parasympathetic tone and increased sympathetic activity. - In contrast, opioid intoxication causes **miosis (pinpoint pupils)**. *Yawning* - **Yawning** is a very common and early symptom of opioid withdrawal, often accompanied by feelings of fatigue and restlessness. - It reflects generalized **autonomic dysregulation** during withdrawal. *Lacrimation* - **Lacrimation (tearing)** is another prominent autonomic symptom of opioid withdrawal. - This, along with rhinorrhea, contributes to the **"flu-like" symptoms** experienced during withdrawal.
Question 3: A patient is admitted with insomnia, agitation, diarrhea, dilated pupils, and sweating. What is the type of poisoning?
- A. Cannabis
- B. Ecstasy
- C. Heroin
- D. Cocaine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Cocaine** - The symptoms of **insomnia, agitation, diarrhea, dilated pupils, and sweating** are classic manifestations of **sympathomimetic toxicity**, characteristic of cocaine poisoning. - Cocaine acts by **blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin**, leading to excessive stimulation of the central and peripheral nervous systems. - This presentation represents a **pure sympathomimetic toxidrome** without additional complicating features, which is most classically associated with cocaine intoxication. *Heroin* - Heroin poisoning (opioid overdose) typically presents with **CNS depression**, including **respiratory depression**, **pinpoint pupils (miosis)**, and **constipation**, which are opposite to the symptoms described. - Patients are usually **sedated or comatose**, not agitated or insomniac. - This represents an **opioid toxidrome**, not a sympathomimetic one. *Cannabis* - Cannabis intoxication usually causes **conjunctival injection (red eyes)**, **tachycardia**, **dry mouth**, and **increased appetite**, often accompanied by euphoria or drowsiness. - While it can cause some anxiety/agitation in higher doses or naive users, it does **not cause mydriasis (dilated pupils)** or the severe physical stimulation seen here. - Cannabis does not produce a sympathomimetic toxidrome. *Ecstasy* - Ecstasy (MDMA) is also a sympathomimetic and can cause similar symptoms including agitation, dilated pupils, and sweating. - However, MDMA intoxication is more characteristically associated with **severe hyperthermia**, **hyponatremia**, **bruxism (teeth grinding)**, **serotonin syndrome**, and **rhabdomyolysis** in severe cases. - While both are sympathomimetics, the presentation described represents a **classic pure sympathomimetic picture** most consistent with **cocaine**, which is the more common cause of this toxidrome in clinical practice.
Question 4: The preferred drug for treating ADHD in a 7-year-old boy, whose father has a history of substance abuse:
- A. Clonidine
- B. Atomoxetine (Correct Answer)
- C. Dexamphetamine
- D. Methylphenidate
Explanation: ***Atomoxetine*** - As a **non-stimulant**, atomoxetine is preferred in patients where stimulant use is contraindicated or when there's a concern for **substance abuse potential**, such as a parental history. - It specifically inhibits the **norepinephrine transporter**, leading to increased norepinephrine levels in the prefrontal cortex, improving ADHD symptoms. *Clonidine* - While clonidine is sometimes used for ADHD, particularly for **hyperactivity** or **tics**, it is not generally considered first-line and can cause **sedation**. - Its mechanism primarily involves stimulating central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors, which can help with impulse control but is distinct from the primary action of atomoxetine. *Dexamphetamine* - This is a **stimulant medication** and is highly effective for ADHD, but it carries a higher potential for **abuse and diversion**, making it less suitable given a family history of substance abuse. - Its mechanism involves increasing dopamine and norepinephrine levels in the brain, which can be reinforcing and contribute to its abuse potential. *Methylphenidate* - Similar to dexamphetamine, methylphenidate is a **stimulant** and a first-line treatment for ADHD, but its potential for **abuse** makes it a less desirable choice in this specific clinical context. - It acts as a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor, increasing the availability of these neurotransmitters, but like other stimulants, its controlled substance status is a concern.
Question 5: Delusion of persecution and formication occur together in
- A. LSD
- B. Cocaine (Correct Answer)
- C. Amphetamine
- D. Cannabis
Explanation: ***Cocaine*** - **Chronic cocaine abuse** can lead to **paranoid delusions** (delusions of persecution) and tactile hallucinations such as **formication** (sensation of insects crawling under the skin, called "**cocaine bugs**"). - These symptoms occur together in **cocaine-induced psychosis**, which can mimic **paranoid schizophrenia**. - The combination of **paranoid delusions with formication** is a classical presentation of **stimulant psychosis**, seen with cocaine. *Amphetamine* - **Amphetamine/methamphetamine abuse** can also cause **psychotic symptoms** including paranoia, delusions of persecution, and formication ("**meth mites**"). - While both cocaine and amphetamine can cause this combination, **cocaine** is the **traditional answer** in medical examinations for this specific combination of symptoms. - Clinically, amphetamine-induced formication is increasingly recognized. *LSD* - **Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)** primarily causes **visual hallucinations**, altered perceptions, and synesthesia. - While LSD can induce paranoia and anxiety, **delusions of persecution** and **formication** are not typical features. - LSD effects are more perceptual distortions than true psychotic symptoms. *Cannabis* - **Cannabis use** can sometimes induce **acute psychotic episodes** in vulnerable individuals, particularly with high-potency preparations. - Cannabis effects include **anxiety**, **paranoia**, and **depersonalization**. - **Formication** and prominent **delusions of persecution** are not characteristic of cannabis intoxication.
Question 6: Stimulant drugs are primarily given to children for the treatment of:
- A. Speech developmental disorder
- B. Conduct disorder
- C. ADHD (Correct Answer)
- D. Pervasive disorder
Explanation: ***ADHD*** - Stimulant medications like **methylphenidate** and **amphetamine** are first-line treatments for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children. - They work by increasing the levels of **dopamine** and **norepinephrine** in the brain, improving focus and reducing impulsivity. *Speech developmental disorder* - This disorder primarily involves difficulties with **language production** or comprehension. - Treatment typically focuses on **speech therapy** and educational interventions, not stimulant medications. *Conduct disorder* - This condition involves persistent patterns of **antisocial behavior**, aggression, and violations of rules. - While therapy is the primary treatment, if there are co-occurring symptoms of ADHD, stimulants might be used to address those specific symptoms, but aren't a direct treatment for conduct disorder itself. *Pervasive disorder* - This term is an older term for what is now known as **autism spectrum disorder (ASD)**. - There is no evidence that stimulant medications are effective for the core symptoms of ASD, and they might exacerbate some behavioral symptoms.
Question 7: A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because of memory loss and difficulty walking. She has noticed personality changes, truancy from work, and lack of personal care over the past 1 year. On examination, he appears unkempt, smells of urine, and is uncooperative. He cannot recall the date or season and gets angry when asked questions. His answers are often fabricated when checked with his wife. The blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse 100/min, and he is diaphoretic and tremulous. His gait is wide-based, and motor strength and reflexes are normal. His ocular movements are normal, but there is nystagmus on lateral gaze. In the past, he has had multiple admissions for alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Calcium administration
- B. Prophylactic carbamazepine administration
- C. Prophylactic phenytoin administration
- D. Prophylactic diazepam administration (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prophylactic diazepam administration*** - The patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome** (memory loss, ataxia, nystagmus) superimposed on chronic alcohol abuse with a history of alcohol withdrawal, indicating a high risk for further withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens [1], [3]. - **Benzodiazepines** like diazepam are the cornerstone of treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome due to their anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and sedative properties, preventing progression to more severe withdrawal manifestations [2]. *Prophylactic phenytoin administration* - **Phenytoin** is generally not recommended for the prevention or treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures unless there is an underlying seizure disorder unrelated to alcohol. - Its efficacy in preventing recurrent alcohol withdrawal seizures is limited compared to benzodiazepines. *Prophylactic carbamazepine administration* - While **carbamazepine** can be used in some cases of alcohol withdrawal, particularly to reduce seizure risk and improve sleep, it is not considered first-line for acute prophylaxis against severe withdrawal or delirium tremens, especially in a patient with active tremulousness and autonomic hyperactivity. - Benzodiazepines offer a broader spectrum of action against the diverse symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. *Calcium administration* - There is no indication that the patient has a **calcium deficiency** or hypocalcemia related to alcohol withdrawal symptoms. - Calcium administration would not address the underlying neurochemical imbalances associated with acute alcohol withdrawal or the progression to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
Question 8: Difference between thyrotoxicosis and malignant hyperthermia is -
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hyperthermia
- C. Muscle rigidity
- D. Elevated serum CPK level (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Elevated serum CPK level - **Elevated serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK)** is a hallmark of **malignant hyperthermia** due to widespread muscle breakdown, whereas it is typically normal or only mildly elevated in thyrotoxicosis. - This difference is crucial for differentiating these conditions, as **muscle rigidity** and subsequent damage are central to the pathogenesis of malignant hyperthermia. *Tachycardia* - **Tachycardia** (rapid heart rate) is a prominent feature of both **thyrotoxicosis** [1] and **malignant hyperthermia** [2] due to different physiological mechanisms. - In thyrotoxicosis, it results from increased metabolic demand and direct cardiac stimulation [1], while in malignant hyperthermia, it’s a response to increased metabolic rate and CO2 production. *Hyperthermia* - **Hyperthermia** (elevated body temperature) is a defining feature of both **thyrotoxicosis** (especially during a thyroid storm) and **malignant hyperthermia** [2]. - Its presence alone cannot differentiate between these two conditions, as the underlying cause of the fever differs significantly. *Muscle rigidity* - **Muscle rigidity** is a classic and early sign of **malignant hyperthermia**, caused by uncontrolled calcium release in muscle cells [3]. - While muscle weakness and tremors can occur in **thyrotoxicosis** [1], generalized severe muscle rigidity is not a typical feature and is crucial for distinguishing between the two.
Question 9: What is the primary effect of beta blockers in the management of thyroid storm?
- A. Increases metabolism of thyroxine
- B. Blocks thyroxine receptors
- C. Decreases synthesis of thyroxine
- D. Provides rapid relief of symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Detailed management of thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) is a medical emergency where patients should be given propranolol, either oral or intravenous, to manage life-threatening symptoms [1]. ***Provides rapid relief of symptoms*** - Beta blockers primarily address the **adrenergic manifestations** of thyroid storm, such as **tachycardia**, **tremors**, anxiety, and palpitations [1]. - By blocking **beta-adrenergic receptors**, they provide rapid symptomatic relief and reduce cardiovascular stress, without affecting hormone levels [2]. Thyroid hormones normally increase the expression of genes for beta-adrenergic receptors and G-proteins, leading to increased heart rate and force of contraction [2]. *Increases metabolism of thyroxine* - Beta blockers do not increase the **metabolism** or breakdown of thyroxine; their action is primarily on the **peripheral effects** of thyroid hormones. - While some beta blockers like **propranolol** can inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, this is a secondary effect and not their primary role in providing rapid symptomatic relief [1]. *Blocks thyroxine receptors* - Beta blockers do not block **thyroxine receptors**; thyroid hormones exert their effects by binding to intracellular receptors, not adrenergic receptors [2]. - Their action is on the **adrenergic system**, which is overstimulated by the high levels of thyroid hormones. *Decreases synthesis of thyroxine* - Beta blockers do not directly decrease the **synthesis of thyroxine** by the thyroid gland. - That action is performed by **antithyroid drugs** like methimazole and propylthiouracil, which inhibit hormone production [1].
Question 10: A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family because of severe upper back pain, which he describes as ripping. The pain started suddenly 1 hour ago while he was watching television. He has hypertension for 13 years, but he is not compliant with his medications. He denies the use of nicotine, alcohol or illicit drugs. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), the heart rate is 110/min and the blood pressure is 182/81 mm Hg in the right arm and 155/71 mm Hg in the left arm. CT scan of the chest shows an intimal flap limited to the descending aorta. Intravenous opioid analgesia is started. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient condition?
- A. Intravascular ultrasound
- B. Emergency surgical intervention
- C. Sublingual nitroglycerin
- D. Intravenous esmolol (Correct Answer)
- E. Oral metoprolol and/or enalapril
Explanation: ***Intravenous esmolol*** - This patient presents with an **acute aortic dissection** (descending aorta, Type B), characterized by sudden severe ripping back pain and a significant blood pressure difference between the arms [1]. The immediate priority is to reduce **heart rate** and **blood pressure** to decrease shear stress on the aortic wall and prevent progression of the dissection. - **Intravenous beta-blockers** like esmolol are the first-line medical treatment for uncomplicated Type B aortic dissections, as they rapidly decrease heart rate and blood pressure, which helps to mitigate further aortic injury. *Intravascular ultrasound* - While intravascular ultrasound can provide detailed imaging of the aorta, it is an **invasive procedure** and not the immediate next step in managing an acute, hemodynamically unstable condition like aortic dissection where rapid blood pressure control is paramount. - The patient already has a diagnostic CT scan confirming the intimal flap; thus, additional imaging during the acute stabilization phase is not typically the first priority over medical management [2]. *Emergency surgical intervention* - **Emergency surgical intervention** is primarily indicated for **Type A aortic dissections** (involving the ascending aorta) or for complicated Type B dissections (e.g., malperfusion, rupture, rapid expansion) [1]. - This patient has an **uncomplicated Type B dissection** (limited to the descending aorta) that is initially managed medically with aggressive heart rate and blood pressure control. *Sublingual nitroglycerin* - **Nitroglycerin** primarily causes **vasodilation**, which can lower blood pressure but also induces reflex tachycardia, potentially increasing shear stress on the dissected aorta. - It is **contraindicated** in acute aortic dissection as the increase in heart rate can worsen the dissection. *Oral metoprolol and/or enalapril* - **Oral medications** like metoprolol and enalapril are not suitable for the **initial acute management** of aortic dissection because their onset of action is too slow to achieve rapid and precise control of heart rate and blood pressure. - **Intravenous agents** are required for immediate and titratable blood pressure and heart rate reduction in this emergency setting.
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