Surveillance and Survivorship — MCQs
Which of the following statements are true? 1. Due to increasing mammography there occurs over diagnosis of breast carcinoma 2. Colon cancer screening is done by digital rectal examination 3. Oral cancer screening is done by visual inspection 4. Cervix cancer screening is done by a pap smear
Treatment of choice for carcinoma larynx T1N0M0 stage -
Which of the following conditions is the most common complication of radioiodine treatment for Graves' disease?
What is the most significant factor associated with the causation of head and neck carcinoma?
Radiation exposure can lead to which type of thyroid carcinoma?
Which of the following is an inappropriate indication for concomitant chemotherapy in cases of head and neck cancer?
Which of the following is not a cause of oropharyngeal carcinoma?
Trismus in carcinoma of the temporal bone occurs due to involvement of:
Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma of the nose is classified as which of the following?
What is the commonest malignancy type in the oral cavity?
Surveillance and Survivorship Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements are true? 1. Due to increasing mammography there occurs over diagnosis of breast carcinoma 2. Colon cancer screening is done by digital rectal examination 3. Oral cancer screening is done by visual inspection 4. Cervix cancer screening is done by a pap smear
- A. 1,2,3,4
- B. 4 only
- C. 1,3,4 (Correct Answer)
- D. 2,3,4
Explanation: ***Correct: 1,3,4*** - **Statement 1 is TRUE**: Overdiagnosis is a well-documented consequence of increased mammography screening. It detects slow-growing tumors that might never have caused clinical symptoms or harm during a woman's lifetime, leading to unnecessary treatment and associated morbidities. - **Statement 3 is TRUE**: Oral cancer screening primarily involves thorough visual inspection by a healthcare professional to identify suspicious lesions, ulcers, or color changes in the oral cavity. - **Statement 4 is TRUE**: Cervical cancer screening is effectively done by Pap smear, which detects precancerous and cancerous cells. - **Statement 2 is FALSE**: Digital rectal examination is NOT the primary screening method for colon cancer. Standard screening methods include colonoscopy, fecal occult blood testing (FOBT), and fecal immunochemical test (FIT). *Incorrect: 1,2,3,4* - While statements 1, 3, and 4 are true, statement 2 is incorrect. Digital rectal examination is not a primary or definitive screening method for colon cancer—it only examines the rectum and misses most of the colon. *Incorrect: 4 only* - While cervical cancer screening by Pap smear is true, this option is incomplete as it misses other true statements (1 and 3) regarding mammography overdiagnosis and oral cancer screening. *Incorrect: 2,3,4* - This option incorrectly includes statement 2. Colon cancer screening is NOT done by digital rectal examination. Proper screening methods include colonoscopy, FOBT, FIT, and flexible sigmoidoscopy.
Question 2: Treatment of choice for carcinoma larynx T1N0M0 stage -
- A. External beam radiotherapy (Correct Answer)
- B. Surgery
- C. Radioactive implants
- D. Surgery & radiotherapy
Explanation: ***External beam radiotherapy*** - For **early-stage laryngeal cancer (T1N0M0)**, both **radiotherapy and surgery are considered equally effective first-line treatments** with excellent local control rates (>90%). - EBRT offers the advantage of being **completely non-invasive** while preserving vocal function and avoiding surgical risks. - Treatment duration is typically **6-7 weeks**, requiring patient compliance with daily fractions. - Preferred when patient prefers non-invasive approach or has comorbidities making surgery high-risk. *Surgery* - **Transoral laser microsurgery (TLS)** or endoscopic **cordectomy** are equally effective surgical options for T1 glottic cancer with cure rates comparable to radiotherapy. - Modern laser techniques provide excellent **voice preservation** with minimal morbidity. - Advantages include **shorter treatment time** (single procedure), obtaining tissue for histopathology, and preserving radiotherapy as salvage option. - Both **surgery and radiotherapy are Category 1 recommendations** for T1N0M0 disease; choice depends on institutional expertise, patient preference, and individual factors. *Radioactive implants* - **Brachytherapy (radioactive implants)** can be used for early-stage glottic cancer at specialized centers. - However, **external beam radiotherapy** is more commonly employed due to greater accessibility and extensive outcome data. *Surgery & radiotherapy* - **Combined modality treatment** is indicated for **locally advanced disease** (T3-T4) or **node-positive disease** (N+). - For **T1N0M0 disease**, single modality (either surgery OR radiotherapy) is sufficient and preferred to minimize treatment-related morbidity.
Question 3: Which of the following conditions is the most common complication of radioiodine treatment for Graves' disease?
- A. Hypothyroidism (Correct Answer)
- B. Thyroid cancer
- C. Thyroid storm
- D. Subacute thyroiditis
Explanation: ***Hypothyroidism*** - **Radioiodine (RAI) therapy** destroys overactive thyroid cells, making it highly effective for Graves' disease but often leading to a permanent state of **hypothyroidism** post-treatment. - The goal of RAI is to eliminate the source of excess hormone production, and while effective, it frequently necessitates lifelong **thyroid hormone replacement**. *Thyroid storm* - **Thyroid storm** is a rare, life-threatening complication, usually seen in untreated or undertreated hyperthyroidism or during acute stress, not typically a direct outcome of effective RAI. - While a transient increase in thyroid hormones can occur shortly after RAI, a full-blown thyroid storm is infrequent with proper preparation and management. *Thyroid cancer* - There is no significant evidence to suggest an increased risk of **thyroid cancer** in adults following therapeutic doses of radioiodine for Graves' disease [1]. - The radiation dose is targeted primarily at the thyroid gland, and studies have shown no clear link to increased malignancy [1]. *Subacute thyroiditis* - **Subacute thyroiditis** (also known as de Quervain's thyroiditis) is typically a post-viral inflammatory condition of the thyroid, characterized by pain and tenderness in the thyroid gland [2]. - It does not directly result from radioiodine treatment; however, some patients may experience a transient inflammatory response (radiation thyroiditis) after RAI, which is usually mild and self-limiting, not true subacute thyroiditis.
Question 4: What is the most significant factor associated with the causation of head and neck carcinoma?
- A. Intravenous drug abuse
- B. Exposure to nickel
- C. History of syphilis
- D. Tobacco use (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tobacco use*** [1] - Tobacco use is the most significant risk factor for head and neck carcinomas, with strong evidence linking it to both oral and pharyngeal cancers. [1] - It promotes carcinogenic changes in the mucosal lining of the head and neck, significantly increasing the risk of malignancy. [1] *History of syphilis* - While syphilis has been linked to oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma, its role is less significant than tobacco. - Other factors, such as HPV infection, are more clinically relevant for head and neck cancers associated with syphilis. [1] *Exposure to nickel* - Nickel exposure is primarily associated with respiratory cancers, particularly lung cancer, rather than head and neck cancers. - The connection to head and neck carcinoma is not well established, making it a minor risk factor compared to tobacco. *Intravenous drug abuse* - Although intravenous drug abuse may lead to other health complications, it is not a direct significant risk factor for head and neck carcinoma. - Other lifestyle choices and exposures, particularly tobacco, play a much larger role in the development of these cancers.
Question 5: Radiation exposure can lead to which type of thyroid carcinoma?
- A. Lymphoma
- B. Papillary carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Medullary carcinoma
- D. Follicular carcinoma
Explanation: ***Papillary carcinoma*** - Papillary thyroid carcinoma is strongly associated with **radiation exposure**, particularly during childhood [1]. - It is the most prevalent type of thyroid cancer and typically has a **good prognosis** [1]. *Lymphoma* - Thyroid lymphoma is rare and generally not linked to **radiation exposure**; it often presents as a **rapidly enlarging goiter**. - It is more commonly associated with **autoimmune thyroiditis**, not primary radiation effects. *Follicular carcinoma* - Follicular carcinoma shows a correlation with **iodine deficiency** rather than radiation exposure [1]. - Its presentation is more subtle, compared to the classical association of **radiation with papillary carcinoma**. *Medullary carcinoma* - Medullary thyroid carcinoma is primarily linked to **familial syndromes** like MEN 2 and not radiation exposure. - It arises from **parafollicular C cells**, making it clinically distinct from radiation-related types. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1098-1099.
Question 6: Which of the following is an inappropriate indication for concomitant chemotherapy in cases of head and neck cancer?
- A. Metastatic advanced head and neck cancer (Correct Answer)
- B. As an organ-preserving method of treatment
- C. Primary treatment for patients with unresectable disease
- D. Postoperative case of intermediate stage resectable tumor
Explanation: ***Metastatic advanced head and neck cancer*** - While chemotherapy is used in metastatic head and neck cancer, the term "concomitant chemotherapy" implies simultaneous administration with radiation therapy. For **metastatic disease**, the primary treatment strategy is usually **systemic chemotherapy** or targeted therapy, not necessarily concomitant with radiation to a local site with curative intent. - Concomitant chemoradiation is primarily used for **locally advanced, non-metastatic disease** to improve local control and survival, not typically for systemic metastatic disease where the goal is palliation or systemic control. *As an organ-preserving method of treatment* - Concomitant chemoradiation is a well-established strategy for organ preservation, particularly in advanced laryngeal and pharyngeal cancers, allowing patients to avoid **laryngectomy** or extensive surgical resections while achieving similar oncologic outcomes. - This approach aims to maintain **swallowing and speech function** by reducing tumor burden and eradicating microscopic disease. *Primary treatment for patients with unresectable disease* - For **unresectable locally advanced head and neck cancers**, concomitant chemoradiation is often considered the **definitive primary treatment** to achieve local control and improve survival outcomes. - Surgery is not feasible in these cases due to tumor extent or involvement of critical structures, making chemoradiation the best curative option. *Postoperative case of intermediate stage resectable tumor* - **Adjuvant concomitant chemoradiation** is indicated postoperatively for resected tumors with high-risk features such as **extracapsular extension (ECE)** or positive surgical margins, even in intermediate stages. - This is done to eradicate microscopic residual disease and reduce the risk of **local-regional recurrence**.
Question 7: Which of the following is not a cause of oropharyngeal carcinoma?
- A. Occupational exposure to hydrochloric acid (Correct Answer)
- B. Smoking
- C. Human Papilloma Virus infection
- D. Occupational exposure to isopropyl oil
Explanation: **Explanation:** The primary risk factors for oropharyngeal carcinoma (OPC) are lifestyle-related and viral, rather than chemical or industrial. **1. Why Option A is the Correct Answer:** Occupational exposure to **hydrochloric acid (HCl)** is primarily associated with dental erosion and irritation of the upper respiratory tract, but it is **not** a recognized carcinogen for the oropharynx. In contrast, exposure to strong inorganic acid mists (like sulfuric acid) is linked specifically to **laryngeal cancer**, not oropharyngeal cancer. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Smoking (Option B):** Tobacco use is a classic risk factor. Carcinogens like nitrosamines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons cause field cancerization, leading to squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the entire aerodigestive tract. * **Human Papilloma Virus (Option C):** HPV (specifically **Type 16**) is now the leading cause of oropharyngeal cancer globally, especially involving the palatine tonsils and base of tongue. HPV-positive tumors have a better prognosis than tobacco-related ones. * **Isopropyl Oil (Option D):** Occupational exposure to the manufacture of isopropyl alcohol (specifically the "strong acid process" involving isopropyl oil) is a documented risk factor for cancers of the **paranasal sinuses and the oropharynx**. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Site:** The **palatine tonsil** is the most common site for oropharyngeal SCC. * **HPV Marker:** **p16** immunohistochemistry is used as a surrogate marker for HPV-associated oropharyngeal cancer. * **Plummer-Vinson Syndrome:** Associated with post-cricoid (hypopharyngeal) carcinoma, not primarily oropharyngeal. * **Diet:** Deficiencies in Vitamin A and C are also implicated in the development of oral and pharyngeal malignancies.
Question 8: Trismus in carcinoma of the temporal bone occurs due to involvement of:
- A. Dura
- B. Temporomandibular joint (Correct Answer)
- C. Mastoid
- D. Eustachian tube
Explanation: **Explanation:** In the context of temporal bone carcinoma (most commonly Squamous Cell Carcinoma), **Trismus** (inability to open the mouth) is a significant clinical sign indicating **anterior extension** of the tumor. **Why the Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) is correct:** The anterior wall of the external auditory canal (EAC) is in direct anatomical proximity to the glenoid fossa and the TMJ. When a malignancy breaches the anterior bony or cartilaginous wall of the EAC, it invades the TMJ and the associated pterygoid muscles. This infiltration leads to pain and mechanical restriction of mandibular movement, resulting in trismus. This finding usually signifies an advanced stage (T3 or T4) and a poorer prognosis. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Dura:** Involvement of the dura (superior extension through the tegmen) leads to neurological complications, CSF otorrhea, or meningitis, but does not mechanically restrict jaw movement. * **Mastoid:** Posterior extension into the mastoid air cells causes retroauricular pain and swelling, but the mastoid process does not interface with the muscles of mastication. * **Eustachian tube:** While the tumor can involve the Eustachian tube leading to middle ear effusion and conductive hearing loss, it does not cause the muscular or joint fixation required for trismus. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Most common site:** The External Auditory Canal is the most common site for temporal bone malignancy. * **Most common histology:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma. * **Clinical Red Flag:** Chronic otorrhea that becomes **blood-stained** or is associated with **deep-seated ear pain** should always be suspicious of malignancy. * **Staging:** Facial nerve palsy and Trismus are indicators of advanced disease (T4 in the modified Pittsburgh staging system).
Question 9: Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma of the nose is classified as which of the following?
- A. Carcinoma
- B. Sarcoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Carcinosarcoma
- D. Hamartoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Epithelioid Hemangioendothelioma (EHE)** is a rare vascular neoplasm of intermediate malignancy. The correct classification is **Sarcoma** because it originates from mesenchymal tissue (specifically vascular endothelial cells). 1. **Why Sarcoma is Correct:** By definition, a sarcoma is a malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal cells (bone, cartilage, fat, muscle, or blood vessels). EHE is characterized by "epithelioid" endothelial cells that mimic epithelial cells in appearance but are positive for vascular markers like **CD31, CD34, and Factor VIII-related antigen**. It is considered an intermediate-grade vascular sarcoma, falling between a benign hemangioma and a highly aggressive angiosarcoma. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Carcinoma:** These are malignant tumors of **epithelial** origin (e.g., Squamous Cell Carcinoma). While EHE has "epithelioid" features histologically, its lineage is endothelial (mesenchymal). * **Carcinosarcoma:** This is a true "mixed" tumor containing both malignant epithelial and malignant mesenchymal components. * **Hamartoma:** This is a benign, disorganized growth of mature native tissue. EHE is a neoplastic process with metastatic potential, not a developmental malformation. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Histology:** Look for "intracytoplasmic vacuoles" (lumina) containing red blood cells within epithelioid cells. * **Genetics:** Often associated with a specific translocation: **t(1;3)(p36;q25)** resulting in the **WWTR1-CAMTA1** fusion gene. * **Behavior:** It is locally invasive and has a metastatic rate of approximately 20-30%. * **Treatment:** Wide surgical excision is the primary modality; it is generally resistant to radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
Question 10: What is the commonest malignancy type in the oral cavity?
- A. Adenocarcinoma
- B. Transitional cell carcinoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Basal cell carcinoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: C. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** The oral cavity is lined by **stratified squamous epithelium**. Malignant transformation of these cells leads to Squamous Cell Carcinoma, which accounts for over **90-95%** of all oral cavity cancers. The primary risk factors include tobacco (smoking and smokeless), betel nut chewing, and chronic alcohol consumption. The most common site within the oral cavity for SCC is the **lower lip** (globally) or the **buccal mucosa/retro-molar trigone** (in the Indian subcontinent due to tobacco chewing habits). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A. Adenocarcinoma:** These arise from glandular tissue. In the oral cavity, they originate from minor salivary glands. While they are the second most common group, they are far less frequent than SCC. * **B. Transitional cell carcinoma:** This type of epithelium is characteristic of the urinary tract (urothelium). It is not found in the oral cavity. * **D. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC):** BCC is a skin cancer (rodent ulcer) arising from the basal layer of the epidermis. While it commonly occurs on the face (above the line joining the tragus to the angle of the mouth), it does not arise from the oral mucosa. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site (India):** Buccal mucosa (often referred to as the "Indian Oral Cancer"). * **Most common site (Global):** Lower lip. * **Premalignant conditions:** Leukoplakia (most common), Erythroplakia (highest risk of transformation), and Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF). * **Lymphatic spread:** Usually to Level I, II, and III neck nodes. * **Staging:** The "Worst Pattern of Invasion" (WPOI) and "Depth of Invasion" (DOI) are critical prognostic factors in the latest AJCC staging.
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