Diseases of the Ear — MCQs

Diseases of the Ear Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 81: A boy with acute suppurative otitis media (ASOM) is undergoing treatment with penicillin therapy for 7 days. He now presents with subsidence of pain and persistence of deafness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ototoxicity
B. Secretory otitis media (Correct Answer)
C. Adhesive otitis media
D. Tympanosclerosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** The scenario describes a classic case of **"Masked Mastoiditis"** or **Resolution of ASOM into Secretory Otitis Media (SOM)** due to inadequate or incomplete antibiotic therapy. **Why Secretory Otitis Media is correct:** In ASOM, penicillin effectively treats the acute bacterial infection, leading to the subsidence of pain (otalgia) and fever. However, if the underlying Eustachian tube dysfunction persists or if the infection is only partially resolved, sterile fluid remains trapped in the middle ear cleft. This transition from an acute suppurative stage to a chronic non-suppurative stage results in persistent **conductive hearing loss** (deafness) despite the disappearance of acute symptoms. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Ototoxicity:** Penicillin is not ototoxic. Ototoxicity (usually caused by aminoglycosides) typically presents with sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo, not as a sequel to treated ASOM. * **Adhesive Otitis Media:** This is a late-stage complication where the tympanic membrane becomes retracted and "plastered" onto the promontory due to long-standing negative pressure. It does not occur acutely within 7 days. * **Tympanosclerosis:** This refers to hyalinization and calcification of the tympanic membrane (chalky white patches). It is a sequela of chronic inflammation, not an immediate post-treatment finding of ASOM. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Masked Mastoiditis:** Often caused by inadequate antibiotic dose/duration. The classic triad is: *subsidence of pain, persistent deafness, and a thickened/dull tympanic membrane.* * **Treatment of choice for SOM:** Initially medical (decongestants); if persistent, **Myringotomy with Grommet insertion**. * **Hearing Loss Type:** ASOM and SOM both cause **Conductive Hearing Loss**. If a patient develops vertigo or SNHL, suspect labyrinthitis.

Question 82: What is the investigation of choice for cholesteatoma?

A. Schuller's view X-ray
B. Otoscopy
C. Skull X-ray, lateral view
D. HRCT temporal bone (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Cholesteatoma** is a destructive, non-neoplastic lesion characterized by the presence of keratinizing squamous epithelium within the middle ear or mastoid. **Why HRCT Temporal Bone is the Investigation of Choice:** High-Resolution Computed Tomography (HRCT) of the temporal bone is the gold standard for evaluating cholesteatoma. It provides superior bone detail, allowing for the precise assessment of: * **Bony Erosion:** Specifically of the scutum (often the earliest sign), ossicular chain, and mastoid air cells. * **Extent of Disease:** It maps the involvement of the attic, antrum, and middle ear cleft. * **Complications:** It identifies dehiscence of the fallopian canal (facial nerve), tegmen tympani (risk of intracranial spread), and the lateral semicircular canal (fistula). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & C (X-rays):** Conventional radiography (Schuller’s or Lateral views) has been largely replaced by CT. While they can show mastoid pneumatization or large areas of destruction, they lack the sensitivity to detect early cholesteatoma or soft tissue extensions. * **B (Otoscopy):** While otoscopy is the **initial clinical step** and may show a retraction pocket or pearly white mass, it cannot determine the depth of the lesion or the extent of bony destruction behind the tympanic membrane. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Earliest Bony Change:** Erosion of the **scutum** (outer attic wall). * **MRI (Non-EPI Diffusion Weighted):** This is the investigation of choice for detecting **recurrent or residual** cholesteatoma post-surgery, as it can differentiate between fibrous tissue/granulation and keratin. * **Clinical Sign:** A "marginal perforation" or "attic perforation" with foul-smelling discharge is classically associated with cholesteatoma.

Question 83: Exostosis due to repetitive exposure to cold water is common in which part of the temporal bone?

A. Squamous part
B. Tympanic part (Correct Answer)
C. Petrous part
D. Mastoid part

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Exostoses**, often referred to as "Surfer’s Ear," are benign, broad-based bony outgrowths of the **External Auditory Canal (EAC)**. They occur due to chronic periosteal stimulation by repetitive exposure to cold water or wind. 1. **Why the Tympanic part is correct:** The bony portion of the EAC is formed primarily by the **tympanic part of the temporal bone** (which forms the floor, anterior wall, and lower part of the posterior wall). Since exostoses are localized hyperostoses of the bony canal, they originate directly from this segment. They are typically bilateral, multiple, and symmetrical. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Squamous part:** Forms the roof of the bony EAC and the zygomatic process; while it contributes to the canal, it is not the primary site for cold-water-induced exostoses. * **Petrous part:** This is the densest part of the temporal bone housing the inner ear structures (cochlea and vestibule). It is located medially and is not involved in the formation of the external canal. * **Mastoid part:** Forms the posterior portion of the temporal bone. While it contains air cells and relates to the middle ear, it does not form the lining of the external canal where exostoses develop. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Exostosis vs. Osteoma:** Exostoses are **multiple, bilateral, and broad-based** (seen in swimmers). Osteomas are usually **solitary, unilateral, and pedunculated**, arising from the tympanosquamous or tympanomastoid sutures. * **Clinical Presentation:** Often asymptomatic but can lead to conductive hearing loss or otitis externa due to trapped debris/water (the "wax-trap" effect). * **Management:** Conservative (earplugs) unless symptomatic; surgical removal (canalplasty) is indicated for significant obstruction.

Question 84: A man presents with vesicles over the external acoustic meatus with ipsilateral facial palsy of the Lower Motor Neuron type. What is the most likely cause?

A. Herpes zoster (Correct Answer)
B. Herpes simplex virus-I
C. Varicella
D. None of the above

Explanation: ### Explanation The clinical presentation described is a classic case of **Ramsay Hunt Syndrome** (also known as Herpes Zoster Oticus). **1. Why Herpes Zoster is Correct:** Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by the **reactivation of the Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV)** latent in the **geniculate ganglion** of the facial nerve (CN VII). The virus spreads along the nerve fibers, leading to: * **Vesicular eruptions:** Typically found on the pinna, external acoustic meatus, or behind the ear (the "sensory" distribution of the facial nerve). * **LMN Facial Palsy:** Inflammation and edema of the facial nerve within the narrow bony fallopian canal lead to compression and subsequent lower motor neuron type paralysis. * **Associated Symptoms:** Patients may also experience vestibulocochlear symptoms (tinnitus, vertigo, or hearing loss) if CN VIII is involved. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Herpes Simplex Virus-I (HSV-1):** While HSV-1 is the most common cause of **Bell’s Palsy**, it typically does not present with external ear vesicles. Bell’s Palsy is a diagnosis of exclusion and is "idiopathic" facial paralysis without a rash. * **Varicella:** This refers to the primary infection (Chickenpox). While caused by the same virus, the primary infection presents with a generalized pruritic rash rather than localized dermatomal reactivation with focal nerve palsy. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Prognosis:** The prognosis for facial nerve recovery in Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is **poorer** than in Bell’s Palsy. * **Treatment:** Management involves a combination of **Acyclovir/Valacyclovir** and **Corticosteroids**. * **Hitchelberger’s Sign:** Reduced sensation in the posterior-superior wall of the external auditory canal (seen in acoustic neuroma, but relevant to ear canal sensation). * **Key Distinction:** If vesicles are present + Facial Palsy = **Ramsay Hunt Syndrome**. If no vesicles + Facial Palsy = **Bell’s Palsy**.

Question 85: Which of the following statements is NOT true about Meniere's disease?

A. Is Endolymphatic hydrops
B. Low frequency hearing loss
C. Rinne's is Negative (Correct Answer)
D. Leads to diplopia

Explanation: **Explanation:** Meniere’s disease is characterized by **Endolymphatic Hydrops**, which is the distension of the endolymphatic system due to increased pressure of the endolymph. **Why "Rinne's is Negative" is the correct (False) statement:** Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear (cochlea and vestibule), leading to **Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SNHL)**. In SNHL, air conduction (AC) remains better than bone conduction (BC), resulting in a **Rinne’s Positive** test. A Rinne’s Negative test indicates Conductive Hearing Loss, which is not a feature of Meniere’s. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A (Endolymphatic hydrops):** This is the underlying pathology involving the rupture of Reissner’s membrane and mixing of perilymph and endolymph. * **Option B (Low frequency hearing loss):** Early Meniere’s typically presents with fluctuating, low-frequency SNHL (ascending curve on audiometry), which is a classic diagnostic hallmark. * **Option D (Leads to diplacusis):** While the option says "diplopia" (double vision), it is likely a typographical error for **Diplacusis** (hearing the same sound at different pitches in each ear), which is a classic feature of Meniere’s. If the option strictly meant Diplopia, it would also be false; however, in the context of standard NEET-PG questions, Rinne's test results are the primary focus for differentiating ear pathologies. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad:** Vertigo, Tinnitus, and Sensorineural Hearing Loss. * **Audiometry:** Early stage shows low-frequency loss; late stage shows a flat curve. * **Recruitment Phenomenon:** Positive (characteristic of cochlear lesions). * **Glycerol Test:** Used for diagnosis; it causes osmotic dehydration of the endolymph, leading to temporary improvement in hearing. * **Treatment:** Low salt diet, diuretics (Acetazolamide), and Betahistine for maintenance. Intratympanic Gentamicin is used for refractory cases.

Question 86: All of the following are features of Gradenigo's syndrome, except?

A. It causes diplopia
B. It is characterized by retro-orbital pain
C. It is associated with involvement of the Cranial nerves V and VI
D. It is characterized by serous otitis media (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Gradenigo’s Syndrome is a classic clinical triad resulting from **Petrositis** (infection spreading to the petrous apex of the temporal bone). The syndrome occurs due to the anatomical proximity of the petrous apex to the Dorello’s canal and the Trigeminal ganglion. **Why Option D is the correct answer:** Gradenigo’s syndrome is characterized by **Suppurative Otitis Media** (either Acute or Chronic), not Serous Otitis Media. The condition involves an active, often foul-smelling ear discharge (Otorrhea) as part of the inflammatory process spreading to the petrous bone. Serous otitis media is a non-suppurative condition involving sterile fluid, which does not typically lead to bone erosion or petrositis. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A & C (Diplopia and CN VI):** Inflammation at the petrous apex involves the **Abducens nerve (CN VI)** as it passes through Dorello’s canal. This leads to lateral rectus palsy, resulting in convergent squint and **diplopia** (double vision). * **Option B & C (Retro-orbital pain and CN V):** The **Trigeminal nerve (CN V)**, specifically the Gasserian ganglion, sits in Meckel’s cave near the petrous apex. Irritation causes deep-seated, persistent **retro-orbital or temporal pain**. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The Triad:** 1. Abducens palsy (CN VI), 2. Retro-orbital pain (CN V), 3. Otorrhea (Suppurative Otitis Media). * **Investigation of Choice:** MRI is superior to CT for visualizing the petrous apex and intracranial extension. * **Management:** High-dose intravenous antibiotics and surgical drainage (e.g., cortical or radical mastoidectomy with petrous apicectomy).

Question 87: A patient with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) and cholesteatoma presents with acute onset of vertigo. What is the appropriate treatment?

A. Immediate exploration (Correct Answer)
B. Antibiotics and steroids
C. Labyrinthine sedatives and antibiotics
D. Labyrinthine sedatives only

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of acute vertigo in a patient with **CSOM and Cholesteatoma** is a surgical emergency. It indicates that the disease has eroded the bony labyrinth, most commonly the **lateral semicircular canal**, leading to a **labyrinthine fistula** or acute labyrinthitis. **Why "Immediate Exploration" is correct:** In the presence of a cholesteatoma, vertigo signifies an impending or active intracranial or inner ear complication. The primary goal is the urgent surgical removal of the cholesteatoma (via Mastoidectomy) to decompress the area, remove the source of infection, and prevent further permanent damage to the vestibular and cochlear systems or spread to the intracranial compartment. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **B & C (Antibiotics/Steroids/Sedatives):** While medical management (antibiotics and labyrinthine sedatives) is used as an adjunct to stabilize the patient, it is **not definitive**. Relying solely on medication allows the underlying bone-eroding cholesteatoma to continue its destruction, risking total deafness (dead labyrinth) or meningitis. * **D (Labyrinthine sedatives only):** This merely masks the symptoms (vertigo) without addressing the life-threatening pathology. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of fistula:** Lateral (Horizontal) semicircular canal. * **Fistula Test:** A clinical test where pressure changes in the EAC (using a Siegle’s speculum) induce vertigo and nystagmus. It is positive in labyrinthine fistulae but may be **false negative** if the fistula is plugged by cholesteatoma or if the labyrinth is "dead." * **Management Rule:** Any complication of CSOM (vertigo, facial palsy, or intracranial spread) generally necessitates **urgent surgical intervention.**

Question 88: Barotraumatic otitis media is a result of:

A. Rapid descent while in an aircraft (Correct Answer)
B. Rapid ascent while in an aircraft
C. Sudden acceleration while in a bus
D. Sudden deceleration while in a bus

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Option A is Correct:** Barotraumatic otitis media (Aerotitis) occurs due to a failure of the **Eustachian tube (ET)** to equalize pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. During **rapid descent**, the atmospheric pressure increases rapidly. If the ET is blocked or fails to open, a relative **negative pressure** is created in the middle ear. This vacuum effect leads to retraction of the tympanic membrane, mucosal edema, and transudation of fluid or blood into the middle ear cavity. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option B:** During ascent, atmospheric pressure decreases. The middle ear becomes relatively hyperbaric. This excess pressure usually forces the ET to open passively, allowing air to escape easily. Therefore, barotrauma is much rarer during ascent. * **Options C & D:** Changes in horizontal velocity (acceleration/deceleration) affect the vestibular system (specifically the otolith organs) but do not create the significant atmospheric pressure gradients required to cause middle ear barotrauma. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The Critical Pressure:** If the pressure differential reaches **80–90 mmHg**, the ET becomes "locked" because the pharyngeal muscles (Tensor Veli Palatini) cannot overcome the vacuum to open it. * **Symptoms:** Severe earache (otalgia), hearing loss, tinnitus, and occasionally vertigo. * **Otoscopy Findings:** Retracted TM, "Teed’s scale" grading (ranging from congestion to hemotympanum or perforation). * **Prevention:** Instruct patients to perform the **Valsalva maneuver**, chew gum, or swallow during descent. Decongestants (nasal drops) are helpful if the patient has an upper respiratory infection. * **Treatment:** Most cases are self-limiting; persistent cases may require myringotomy.

Question 89: Dangerous perforation of the eardrum is located at which anatomical region?

A. Central tympanic membrane
B. Attic region of the tympanic membrane (Correct Answer)
C. Paracentral tympanic membrane
D. All of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** Perforations of the tympanic membrane (TM) are clinically categorized based on their location and their association with underlying pathology, specifically **Cholesteatoma**. **1. Why the Attic region is correct:** The **Attic (Pars Flaccida)** and the **Marginal** (posterior-superior quadrant) regions are associated with **Attico-antral type** of Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM). This is termed "dangerous" or "unsafe" because these locations are highly prone to the formation of cholesteatoma—an expanding keratinizing squamous epithelium that causes bone destruction. This can lead to life-threatening intracranial complications (meningitis, brain abscess) or extracranial complications (facial nerve palsy, labyrinthitis). **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Central/Paracentral Perforations:** These are located in the **Pars Tensa** and are surrounded by a rim of the tympanic membrane. They are associated with **Tubotympanic type** of CSOM. This is termed "safe" because it rarely leads to cholesteatoma or serious bone-eroding complications. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Safe CSOM (Tubotympanic):** Central perforation, profuse/mucoid/non-foul smelling discharge, low risk of complications. * **Unsafe CSOM (Attico-antral):** Attic or Marginal perforation, scanty/purulent/foul-smelling discharge (due to bone destruction), high risk of complications. * **Pathognomonic sign:** The presence of **cholesteatoma flakes** (pearly white mass) or **granulation tissue** at the attic/marginal area is a hallmark of dangerous disease. * **Management:** Safe CSOM is often managed medically or via Myringoplasty; Unsafe CSOM almost always requires surgical intervention (Mastoidectomy).

Question 90: Through which of the following routes can infection of the central nervous system spread?

A. Cochlear aqueduct (Correct Answer)
B. Endolymphatic sac
C. Vestibular aqueduct
D. Hyle fissure

Explanation: ### Explanation The spread of infection from the middle ear or labyrinth to the Central Nervous System (CNS) occurs via pre-formed pathways, bone erosion, or retrograde thrombophlebitis. **Why Option A is Correct:** The **Cochlear Aqueduct** (perilymphatic duct) is a narrow bony canal that connects the scala tympani of the cochlea directly with the **subarachnoid space** of the posterior cranial fossa. Under normal physiological conditions, it allows for the passage of perilymph. However, in cases of labyrinthitis (infection of the inner ear), this duct serves as a direct anatomical conduit for bacteria or toxins to reach the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), potentially leading to **meningitis**. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Endolymphatic sac:** This is a blind pouch located between the layers of the dura on the posterior surface of the petrous bone. While it deals with endolymph resorption, it does not provide a direct open communication for the spread of infection to the subarachnoid space. * **C. Vestibular aqueduct:** This bony canal transmits the endolymphatic duct. Unlike the cochlear aqueduct, it does not open into the subarachnoid space; it ends at the endolymphatic sac, which is an enclosed structure. * **D. Hyrtl’s fissure (Hyle fissure):** Also known as the *tympanomeningeal fissure*, this is a transient embryological communication between the hypotympanum and the subarachnoid space. While it can theoretically be a route in infants if it fails to close, the cochlear aqueduct is the classic, established anatomical route for perilymph-CSF communication. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mondini Dysplasia:** Often associated with an abnormally patent cochlear aqueduct, leading to recurrent meningitis and spontaneous CSF otorrhoea/rhinorrhea. * **Routes of Spread:** The three main routes are **Pre-formed pathways** (Cochlear aqueduct, internal auditory canal, oval/round windows), **Direct bone erosion** (Cholesteatoma), and **Retrograde thrombophlebitis** (via small veins). * **Most common route for Meningitis in Suppurative Labyrinthitis:** Cochlear aqueduct.

Practice by Chapter

Otitis Externa

Practice Questions

Acute Otitis Media

Practice Questions

Chronic Otitis Media

Practice Questions

Complications of Otitis Media

Practice Questions

Otosclerosis

Practice Questions

Presbycusis

Practice Questions

Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss

Practice Questions

Noise-Induced Hearing Loss

Practice Questions

Ménière's Disease

Practice Questions

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

Practice Questions

Vestibular Neuritis

Practice Questions

Tumors of the Ear and Temporal Bone

Practice Questions

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