Diseases of the Ear Practice Questions

Q: Identify the condition based on the provided image.

Keratosis obturans. ***Keratosis obturans*** - Characterized by accumulation of **keratin** within the ear canal, leading to **impaction** and potential hearing loss. - Often associated with a **foul odor** and can result in **chronic inflammation** of the ear canal. *Acquired cholesteatoma* - Typically presents as **retraction of the tympanic membrane** and is associated with **recurrent ear infections**. - Unlike keratosis obturans, it involves **destructive growth** of skin cells and can erode neighboring structures, such as the ossicles. *Congenital cholesteatoma* - This condition is present from birth and generally manifests as a **painless mass** in the ear, often behind the tympanic membrane. - Unlike keratosis obturans, there is minimal **inflammation** and it is not related to **keratin accumulation** in the canal. *Rupture of tympanic membrane* - Presents with **acute ear pain**, **hearing loss**, and may show fluid or blood in the ear canal but not **keratin debris**. - The presence of **perforation** is central to this diagnosis and is not indicative of the keratin buildup seen in keratosis obturans.

Q: Which of the following statements about serous otitis media is false?

Type C tympanogram. ***Type C tympanogram*** (FALSE statement) - A **Type C tympanogram** indicates **negative middle ear pressure**, which suggests **eustachian tube dysfunction** or early/resolution phase, but is **NOT the characteristic finding** in active serous otitis media with persistent fluid. - In serous otitis media with established fluid, a **Type B tympanogram** (flat) is the typical finding, indicating limited or no tympanic membrane mobility due to fluid behind the drum. - Type C may be seen in early eustachian tube dysfunction before fluid accumulates, or during resolution, but not in established glue ear. *Also called glue ear* (TRUE statement) - Serous otitis media is indeed commonly referred to as **"glue ear"** due to the thick, viscous fluid that accumulates in the middle ear space. - This term highlights the characteristic consistency of the effusion, which can significantly impair hearing. *Affect school going children* (TRUE statement) - **School-going children** are highly susceptible to serous otitis media, with peak prevalence between **2 and 6 years of age**. - Contributing factors include developing **eustachian tube anatomy**, frequent upper respiratory infections, and adenoid hypertrophy. *Fluid in middle ear* (TRUE statement) - The defining characteristic of serous otitis media is the presence of **non-purulent fluid** in the middle ear space. - This fluid accumulates due to **eustachian tube dysfunction**, leading to negative pressure and transudation of fluid.

Q: A diabetic patient presents with foul smelling ear discharge, fever and severe pain in the ear. On examination there is thick yellow coloured discharge from the ear and granulation tissue in the canal. Which of the following is the appropriate management for this patient?

Antibiotic therapy. ***Antibiotic therapy*** - The clinical picture of a **diabetic patient** with **foul-smelling ear discharge**, **granulation tissue in the ear canal**, and severe pain strongly suggests **malignant otitis externa** (MOE), which is an aggressive bacterial infection, typically caused by *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*. - **High-dose intravenous antipseudomonal antibiotics** are the mainstay of treatment to eradicate the infection and prevent its spread to adjacent bone and soft tissues. *Surgical debridement* - While debridement may be necessary in advanced cases with **osteomyelitis** or persistent necrotic tissue, initial management of MOE primarily focuses on **systemic antibiotic therapy**. - Extensive surgical debridement is generally reserved for cases that fail to respond to medical treatment or show evidence of **extensive bone destruction**. *Cryotherapy* - **Cryotherapy** involves using extreme cold to destroy abnormal tissues and is typically used for specific dermatological conditions or small tumors, not for treating bacterial infections like MOE. - It has no role in the management of an infectious process causing widespread tissue inflammation and potential bone involvement. *Laser removal of granulation tissue* - **Laser removal** is a method for precisely excising or ablating tissue, which might be considered for specific types of benign or malignant growths. - Although **granulation tissue** is present, its removal alone would not address the underlying aggressive bacterial infection that defines malignant otitis externa.

Q: Which of the following is not a direct treatment option for central safe perforation of the tympanic membrane?

Avulsion of aural polyp. ***Avulsion of aural polyp*** - This is a treatment for an **aural polyp**, which is a granulation tissue mass, frequently associated with **chronic otitis media** and sometimes **cholesteatoma**. - While otitis media can lead to tympanic membrane perforation, avulsion of the polyp itself is a removal of symptomatic tissue, not a direct repair of the perforation itself. *Aural toilet (cleaning of the ear)* - **Aural toilet** is crucial for managing any type of tympanic membrane perforation (safe or unsafe) by removing debris and discharge, which helps in preventing infection and promoting healing. - It clears the ear canal and middle ear of accumulated discharge, improving the efficacy of topical medications and reducing the risk of further infection. *Topical antibiotic ear drops* - These are used to treat or prevent **secondary infections** that can develop due to the perforation, especially when there is discharge. - They reduce inflammation and bacterial load in the middle ear, which is vital for healing and preventing complications. *Myringoplasty (surgical repair of the eardrum)* - **Myringoplasty** is the definitive surgical treatment for **tympanic membrane perforation**, aiming to close the hole and restore hearing. - This procedure directly addresses the perforation itself by reconstructing the eardrum.

Q: All of the following are true about malignant otitis externa except which of the following?

Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint. ***Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint*** - While otitis externa can cause mild to moderate conductive **hearing loss** due to swelling and debris, severe hearing loss is **not** typically the chief presenting complaint of **malignant otitis externa**. Instead, patients usually present with severe **otalgia** (ear pain), **otorrhea** (ear discharge), and granulation tissue in the external auditory canal. - The hallmark presentation is **severe, unrelenting otalgia** that is out of proportion to clinical findings, often worse at night. Hearing loss is a secondary feature, not the primary complaint. *ESR is used for follow up after treatment* - **Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)** is a valuable marker for assessing inflammatory activity in **malignant otitis externa** and is commonly utilized to monitor treatment response. - A decrease in ESR indicates successful treatment and resolution of the infection, making it a reliable tool for follow-up. *Granulation tissues are seen on the floor of the external auditory canal* - The presence of **granulation tissue** at the bony-cartilaginous junction of the external auditory canal, particularly on the **floor (inferior wall)**, is a hallmark diagnostic sign of **malignant otitis externa**. - This finding at the floor of the EAC is a classic and highly specific sign indicating osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. *Pseudomonas is the most common cause* - **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** is indeed the predominant pathogen responsible for approximately **90-95%** of **malignant otitis externa** cases. - This gram-negative bacterium is particularly opportunistic in immunocompromised individuals, especially elderly diabetics.

Q: Which ossicle is most commonly involved in CSOM?

Long process of incus. ***Long process of incus*** - The **long process of the incus** is particularly vulnerable to erosion in CSOM due to its relatively **poor blood supply** and slender structure. - This anatomical susceptibility makes it the most common site for **ossicular damage** in chronic middle ear inflammation. *Stapes* - While the stapes can be affected, it is generally **less commonly eroded** than the incus, especially its footplate. - The **stapes superstructure** is somewhat more protected within the oval window niche. *Head of malleus* - The **head of the malleus** is situated in the **epitympanum** and is relatively robust, making it less prone to early erosion. - Its position often shields it from direct inflammatory damage that affects more exposed ossicular parts. *Handle of malleus* - The **handle of the malleus** is more resistant to erosion compared to the incus's long process because of its thicker bone and more direct connection to the **tympanic membrane**. - Though it can be involved in severe cases, it is not the most frequently affected ossicle.

Q: Most common malignancy of middle ear is

Squamous cell carcinoma. ***Squamous cell carcinoma*** - Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is the **most common malignancy of the middle ear**, accounting for approximately 60-80% of middle ear malignancies. - Often arises in the context of **chronic otitis media**, with or without cholesteatoma, where chronic inflammation and irritation can lead to malignant transformation of the squamous epithelium. - Presents with symptoms similar to chronic ear disease: **otorrhea, hearing loss, otalgia**, and sometimes facial nerve paralysis or bleeding. *Glomus tumor* - A glomus tumor (paraganglioma) is a **benign, highly vascular tumor** that commonly occurs in the middle ear. - While it can be locally aggressive and destructive, it is **not a malignancy** and typically does not metastasize. - Characteristic features include **pulsatile tinnitus** and a reddish mass behind the tympanic membrane. *Adenocarcinoma* - Adenocarcinoma of the middle ear is an **extremely rare malignancy**, arising from glandular elements (ceruminous glands). - Far less common than squamous cell carcinoma in the middle ear. *Sarcoma* - Sarcomas (such as rhabdomyosarcoma) can occur in the ear region, particularly in **children**, but are much less common as primary middle ear malignancies in adults. - These tumors originate from **mesenchymal tissue** rather than epithelial tissue, distinguishing them from carcinomas.

Q: What condition is characterized by multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane?

Tuberculous Otitis Media. ***Tuberculous Otitis Media*** - This condition is characterized by **multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane**, often described as a **'sieve-like' appearance**. - It also commonly presents with **painless otorrhea** and **granulations** in the middle ear. *Otitis Media due to Syphilis* - **Syphilitic otitis media** is rare and typically presents with sensorineural hearing loss, often bilateral, and sometimes vestibular symptoms. - While it can cause inflammatory changes, **multiple tympanic membrane perforations** are not a primary distinguishing feature. *Otitis Media due to Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is a common cause of **chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)**, often associated with a single large perforation or a marginal perforation. - It usually presents with **fetid otorrhea** and can be aggressive, but **multiple perforations** are not a characteristic sign. *Fungal Otitis Media* - **Fungal otitis media**, or **otomycosis**, typically presents with **itching, earache, and aural fullness**, with examination revealing fungal debris. - While the tympanic membrane can be involved, **multiple perforations** are not a typical finding; rather, it often causes inflammation and possible superficial erosion.

Q: Which of the following is included in the Levenson criteria for congenital cholesteatoma?

White mass medial to normal tympanic membrane. ***White mass medial to normal tympanic membrane*** - The presence of a **white mass** behind an **intact, normal tympanic membrane** is a hallmark finding for congenital cholesteatoma according to the Levenson criteria. - This criterion specifically excludes acquired forms that might involve tympanic membrane perforation or retraction. *Atticoantral perforation of the tympanic membrane* - An **atticoantral perforation** is characteristic of **acquired cholesteatoma**, not congenital cholesteatoma. - The Levenson criteria require an **intact tympanic membrane** to diagnose congenital cholesteatoma. *Definite history of otorrhoea* - **Otorrhoea (ear discharge)** suggests an **infection or perforation**, which is more commonly associated with acquired cholesteatoma or chronic otitis media. - Congenital cholesteatoma typically presents without a history of ear discharge. *History of prior otologic procedures* - A history of prior **otologic procedures** (e.g., tympanostomy tube placement, myringotomy) is an **exclusion criterion** for congenital cholesteatoma as per Levenson. - Such procedures could potentially introduce epithelial cells into the middle ear, mimicking a congenital lesion but actually representing an acquired form.

Question 1

Identify the condition based on the provided image.

Accepted Answer

Keratosis obturans

Answer

Acquired cholesteatoma

Answer

Congenital cholesteatoma

Answer

Rupture of tympanic membrane

Question 2

Which of the following statements about serous otitis media is false?

Accepted Answer

Type C tympanogram

Answer

Affect school going children

Answer

Also called glue ear

Answer

Fluid in middle ear

Question 3

A diabetic patient presents with foul smelling ear discharge, fever and severe pain in the ear. On examination there is thick yellow coloured discharge from the ear and granulation tissue in the canal. Which of the following is the appropriate management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Antibiotic therapy

Answer

Surgical debridement

Answer

Cryotherapy

Answer

Laser removal of granulation tissue

Question 4

Which of the following is not a direct treatment option for central safe perforation of the tympanic membrane?

Accepted Answer

Avulsion of aural polyp

Answer

Aural toilet (cleaning of the ear)

Answer

Topical antibiotic ear drops

Answer

Myringoplasty (surgical repair of the eardrum)

Question 5

All of the following are true about malignant otitis externa except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint

Answer

Pseudomonas is the most common cause

Answer

ESR is used for follow up after treatment

Answer

Granulation tissues are seen on the floor of the external auditory canal

Question 6

A 10 year old child presents with painless, non-foul-smelling purulent discharge from the ear. Patient reports that he is able to hear better in the presence of discharge than when the ear is dry. The most probable diagnosis is

Accepted Answer

Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) with tympanic membrane perforation

Answer

Otitis media with effusion

Answer

Mastoiditis with pain and swelling

Answer

Cholesteatoma with foul-smelling discharge

Question 7

Which ossicle is most commonly involved in CSOM?

Accepted Answer

Long process of incus

Answer

Stapes

Answer

Head of malleus

Answer

Handle of malleus

Question 8

Most common malignancy of middle ear is

Accepted Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer

Glomus tumor

Answer

Adenocarcinoma

Answer

Sarcoma

Question 9

What condition is characterized by multiple perforations of the tympanic membrane?

Accepted Answer

Tuberculous Otitis Media

Answer

Otitis Media due to Syphilis

Answer

Otitis Media due to Pseudomonas

Answer

Fungal Otitis Media

Question 10

Which of the following is included in the Levenson criteria for congenital cholesteatoma?

Accepted Answer

White mass medial to normal tympanic membrane

Answer

Atticoantral perforation of the tympanic membrane

Answer

Definite history of otorrhoea

Answer

History of prior otologic procedures

Diseases of the Ear — MCQs

Diseases of the Ear — MCQs

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