Skin Tumors — MCQs
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Which of the following conditions is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?
A 45-year-old man presented with a 3-year history of a painless, soft, and slow-growing swelling of the neck, upper trunk, upper back, and shoulders. The patient had a history of heavy alcohol consumption and was a non-smoker. Laboratory blood analysis showed minor elevations in aspartate aminotransferase (71 U/L), alanine aminotransferase (49 U/L), and total cholesterol. Triglycerides were elevated at 1,020 mg/dL (11.52 mmol/L). Magnetic resonance imaging revealed diffuse, non-encapsulated fatty deposits in the mediastinum and in the subcutaneous and deeper fascial compartments of the neck, upper trunk, and back. What is the probable diagnosis of the patient?
Which of the following skin conditions has been implicated as being caused or exacerbated by sunlight exposure?
Squamous cell carcinoma can arise from which of the following conditions?
Mycosis fungoides is a type of:
Acanthosis nigricans is indicative of which of the following?
Basal cell carcinoma is also known as:
What is the most common site for lentigo maligna melanoma?
What is the most common intraoral site for pigmented nevi?
Which cancer is known to develop in chronic ulcers?
Skin Tumors Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which of the following conditions is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?
- A. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
- B. Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Mantle cell Lymphoma
- D. MALToma
Explanation: **Explanation:** Pyoderma Gangrenosum (PG) is a rare, non-infectious neutrophilic dermatosis characterized by painful, rapidly progressing necrotic ulcers with undermined violaceous borders. It is strongly associated with systemic diseases in approximately 50% of cases. **1. Why Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) is correct:** While the most common hematologic associations with PG are **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)** and **Monoclonal Gammopathy (IgA)**, among the lymphomas, **Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma** is the classically recognized association. The underlying pathophysiology involves a state of "pathergy" and immune dysregulation often triggered by the paraneoplastic effects of the underlying malignancy. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hodgkin’s Lymphoma:** While HL is associated with various paraneoplastic skin conditions (like Ichthyosis acquisita or Pruritus), it is significantly less commonly linked to Pyoderma Gangrenosum compared to NHL. * **Mantle Cell Lymphoma & MALToma:** These are specific subtypes of B-cell NHL. While they could theoretically cause PG, the question asks for the broader category. In medical entrance exams, "Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma" is the standard high-yield association taught for PG. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Association:** Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD), specifically **Ulcerative Colitis** (more common than Crohn’s). * **Other Associations:** Rheumatoid Arthritis, Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies, and Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS). * **Pathergy Phenomenon:** Development of new lesions at sites of minor trauma (also seen in Behçet’s disease and Sweet Syndrome). * **Treatment of Choice:** Systemic Corticosteroids or Cyclosporine. * **Histopathology:** Shows a dense neutrophilic infiltrate (neutrophilic dermatosis).
Question 32: A 45-year-old man presented with a 3-year history of a painless, soft, and slow-growing swelling of the neck, upper trunk, upper back, and shoulders. The patient had a history of heavy alcohol consumption and was a non-smoker. Laboratory blood analysis showed minor elevations in aspartate aminotransferase (71 U/L), alanine aminotransferase (49 U/L), and total cholesterol. Triglycerides were elevated at 1,020 mg/dL (11.52 mmol/L). Magnetic resonance imaging revealed diffuse, non-encapsulated fatty deposits in the mediastinum and in the subcutaneous and deeper fascial compartments of the neck, upper trunk, and back. What is the probable diagnosis of the patient?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Rheumatoid arthritis
- C. Madelung's disease (Correct Answer)
- D. Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation: ### Explanation **Madelung’s Disease (Multiple Symmetric Lipomatosis)** is the correct diagnosis based on the classic clinical triad presented: symmetric fatty deposits, a history of chronic alcoholism, and metabolic derangements. **1. Why Madelung’s Disease is Correct:** * **Clinical Presentation:** It is characterized by the symmetric growth of non-encapsulated, diffuse fatty tissue in the neck (often called "Madura neck" or "Horse collar"), shoulders, and upper trunk. * **Demographics & Risk Factors:** It predominantly affects middle-aged men (30–60 years) with a strong association with **chronic alcohol consumption** (up to 90% of cases). * **Metabolic Profile:** Patients frequently exhibit hypertriglyceridemia, hyperuricemia, and glucose intolerance, matching this patient's elevated triglycerides (1,020 mg/dL) and liver enzymes. * **Imaging:** MRI typically shows non-encapsulated adipose tissue infiltrating both subcutaneous and deep fascial planes (mediastinum), which distinguishes it from simple obesity or isolated lipomas. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Tuberculosis (A):** Usually presents with lymphadenopathy (scrofula) which is firm, often matted, and associated with systemic symptoms like fever and night sweats, not diffuse fatty deposition. * **Rheumatoid Arthritis (B):** A chronic inflammatory joint disease. While it can have extra-articular manifestations, it does not cause symmetric truncal lipomatosis. * **Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (D):** Presents with painless lymphadenopathy (often cervical), but the nodes are discrete and rubbery. Imaging would show enlarged lymph nodes rather than diffuse fatty infiltration. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Synonyms:** Launois-Bensaude syndrome. * **Key Association:** Chronic alcoholism and mitochondrial DNA mutations (in some cases). * **Complications:** Can cause obstructive symptoms (dyspnea or dysphagia) due to mediastinal or laryngeal involvement. * **Treatment:** Primarily surgical (lipectomy or liposuction), though recurrence is common if alcohol consumption continues.
Question 33: Which of the following skin conditions has been implicated as being caused or exacerbated by sunlight exposure?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Lymphoepithelioma
- C. Junctional nevus
- D. Verruca vulgaris
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) is correct:** Basal Cell Carcinoma is the most common skin cancer worldwide and is directly linked to **cumulative and intermittent ultraviolet (UV) radiation exposure**, particularly UVB. UV radiation causes DNA damage (specifically pyrimidine dimers) and mutations in the **PTCH1 gene** (part of the Hedgehog signaling pathway) and the **p53 tumor suppressor gene**. It typically occurs on sun-exposed areas like the face (above the line joining the lobe of the ear to the angle of the mouth). **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Lymphoepithelioma:** This is a subtype of nasopharyngeal carcinoma strongly associated with the **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)**, not sunlight. * **Junctional Nevus:** These are common acquired melanocytic nevi. While sun exposure can increase the *number* of nevi, their primary etiology is genetic melanocyte proliferation at the dermo-epidermal junction. They are not primarily "caused" by sunlight in the same direct oncogenic sense as BCC. * **Verruca Vulgaris:** These are common warts caused by the **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**, specifically types 1, 2, 4, and 7. They are viral infections, not actinic (sun-related) damage. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site for BCC:** The nose (specifically the tip and alae). * **Characteristic feature:** "Pearly" or "Translucent" papule with **telangiectasia** and a "rolled-out" border. * **Rodent Ulcer:** A locally invasive, neglected BCC that erodes underlying structures but rarely metastasizes. * **Gold Standard Treatment:** Mohs Micrographic Surgery (highest cure rate). * **Inherited Syndrome:** **Gorlin Syndrome** (Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome) involves multiple BCCs, odontogenic keratocysts, and bifid ribs.
Question 34: Squamous cell carcinoma can arise from which of the following conditions?
- A. Long standing venous ulcers
- B. Chronic lupus vulgaris
- C. Rodent ulcer (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the above
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)** is a malignant tumor of keratinocytes that frequently arises from pre-existing chronic inflammatory conditions, scars, or precancerous lesions. **Why "All of the above" is the correct clinical context (Note on Question Logic):** While the provided key marks **Rodent ulcer** as correct, there is a significant clinical nuance. In standard dermatology, **Marjolin’s ulcer** refers to SCC arising in chronic wounds, including **long-standing venous ulcers** and **lupus vulgaris** (cutaneous tuberculosis) scars. However, if the question implies which condition is *most* associated with transformation or follows a specific pattern, we must analyze the options: * **Long-standing venous ulcers (Option A):** These are a classic site for Marjolin’s ulcer. Any chronic non-healing wound can undergo malignant transformation into SCC. * **Chronic Lupus Vulgaris (Option B):** This is the most common form of cutaneous TB to develop SCC within its scarred areas (lupoid scars). * **Rodent Ulcer (Option C):** This is a clinical synonym for **Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)**. While BCC and SCC are both non-melanoma skin cancers, a "Rodent Ulcer" does not typically "transform" into SCC; they are distinct entities. ***Correction/Refinement for NEET-PG:*** If the intended answer is "All of the above," it reflects that SCC can arise from any chronic scar or ulcer. If the key specifically points to Rodent Ulcer, it may be a distractor or a specific subtype question; however, medically, SCC arises from A and B. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls:** 1. **Marjolin’s Ulcer:** SCC arising in a chronic burn scar (most common), venous ulcer, or osteomyelitis sinus tract. It is typically more aggressive than UV-induced SCC. 2. **Bowen’s Disease:** Squamous cell carcinoma *in situ* (full-thickness dysplasia without basement membrane invasion). 3. **Keratoacanthoma:** A rapidly growing tumor that mimics SCC but may spontaneously regress; often considered a low-grade SCC. 4. **Actinic Keratosis:** The most common precancerous lesion for SCC on sun-exposed skin.
Question 35: Mycosis fungoides is a type of:
- A. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (Correct Answer)
- B. T-cell and B-cell lymphoma
- C. B cell lymphoma
- D. Malignancy derived from stem cells
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Mycosis Fungoides (MF)** is the most common primary **Cutaneous T-cell Lymphoma (CTCL)**. It is a malignant proliferation of skin-homing **CD4+ T-lymphocytes** (helper T-cells). The disease typically follows a chronic, indolent course, progressing through three classic clinical stages: Patch, Plaque, and Tumor. * **Why Option A is correct:** MF is defined by the infiltration of the epidermis by malignant T-cells, a phenomenon known as **epidermotropism**. These cells often cluster around Langerhans cells to form pathognomonic **Pautrier’s microabscesses**. * **Why Options B and C are incorrect:** MF is exclusively a T-cell malignancy. While B-cell lymphomas can occur in the skin (e.g., Primary Cutaneous Marginal Zone Lymphoma), they represent a distinct category with different histological and clinical profiles. * **Why Option D is incorrect:** MF arises from mature, post-thymic T-cells that have migrated to the skin, not from undifferentiated pluripotent stem cells. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Sezary Syndrome:** The leukemic (systemic) variant of CTCL characterized by the triad of erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and circulating atypical T-cells (Sezary cells with **cerebriform nuclei**). 2. **Histology:** Look for "string of pearls" (lymphocytes lined up along the dermo-epidermal junction) and Pautrier’s microabscesses. 3. **Treatment:** Early-stage MF is treated with skin-directed therapies like topical steroids, PUVA (Phototherapy), or Nitrogen Mustard. Advanced stages may require systemic chemotherapy or Interferon-alpha.
Question 36: Acanthosis nigricans is indicative of which of the following?
- A. Internal malignancy
- B. Endocrine disorder
- C. Bloom's syndrome
- D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** Acanthosis Nigricans (AN) is a clinical marker characterized by hyperpigmented, velvety plaques typically found in intertriginous areas (axillae, neck, groin). It is not a disease in itself but a cutaneous manifestation of various systemic conditions. **1. Why "All of the Above" is correct:** * **Endocrine Disorders (Option B):** This is the most common association. AN is a hallmark of **Insulin Resistance**. High levels of circulating insulin cross-react with **IGF-1 receptors** on keratinocytes and fibroblasts, leading to epidermal proliferation. It is frequently seen in Obesity, Type 2 Diabetes, PCOS, and Cushing’s syndrome. * **Internal Malignancy (Option A):** Known as "Malignant Acanthosis Nigricans," it is a paraneoplastic syndrome. It is most commonly associated with **Gastric Adenocarcinoma**. Unlike the benign form, it often has a sudden onset, is more extensive, and may involve the palms (Tripe palms) or oral mucosa. * **Bloom’s Syndrome (Option C):** This is a rare autosomal recessive chromosomal instability disorder. While not the primary feature, AN has been documented in these patients alongside growth retardation, photosensitivity (telangiectatic erythema), and a high predisposition to various cancers. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Posterior neck. * **Most common malignancy:** Gastric Adenocarcinoma (TGF-alpha is the implicated mediator). * **Tripe Palms:** Velvety thickening of palmar skin; if seen with AN, it strongly suggests internal malignancy. * **Sign of Leser-Trélat:** Sudden eruption of multiple seborrheic keratoses; often co-exists with malignant AN. * **Drug-induced AN:** Can be caused by Nicotinic acid, systemic corticosteroids, and OCPs.
Question 37: Basal cell carcinoma is also known as:
- A. Rodent ulcer
- B. Tear cancer
- C. Both (Correct Answer)
- D. None
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)** is the most common skin cancer globally, arising from the basal layer of the epidermis. It is characterized by slow growth and a very low potential for metastasis, though it can be locally invasive. **Why "Both" is correct:** 1. **Rodent Ulcer:** This is the most classic clinical synonym for BCC. The term refers to the tumor's tendency to "gnaw" through deep tissues (skin, cartilage, and bone) if left untreated, much like a rodent. It typically presents as an ulcer with characteristic **pearly, rolled-out borders** and telangiectasia. 2. **Tear Cancer:** This is a traditional clinical term used because BCC frequently occurs on the face, specifically in the **inner canthus of the eye** (the "tear zone"). Due to its proximity to the lacrimal system and its locally destructive nature, it was historically referred to as tear cancer. **Incorrect Options:** * **Option A & B:** While both are correct individually, selecting only one would be incomplete, making **Option C** the most accurate choice for this question. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Site:** Face (specifically above the line joining the lobe of the ear to the angle of the mouth). * **Risk Factor:** Chronic UV light exposure is the primary trigger. * **Histopathology:** Shows **"Peripheral Palisading"** of nuclei and **retraction artifacts** (clefts between tumor nests and stroma). * **Inherited Syndrome:** **Gorlin Syndrome** (Nevoid BCC syndrome) – associated with PTCH gene mutation, odontogenic keratocysts, and bifid ribs. * **Treatment of Choice:** Surgical excision (Mohs Micrographic Surgery has the highest cure rate for high-risk lesions).
Question 38: What is the most common site for lentigo maligna melanoma?
- A. Face (Correct Answer)
- B. Legs
- C. Trunk
- D. Soles
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Lentigo Maligna Melanoma (LMM)** is a subtype of melanoma that arises from a pre-existing **Lentigo Maligna** (melanoma in situ). The primary risk factor for this condition is **cumulative, chronic sun exposure** over many decades. 1. **Why Face is Correct:** Since LMM is directly linked to long-term ultraviolet (UV) radiation damage, it occurs almost exclusively on **sun-exposed areas** of elderly individuals. The **face** (specifically the cheeks and nose) is the most common site, followed by the neck and the dorsum of the hands. It typically presents as a slowly enlarging, variegated brown-to-black macule with irregular borders. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Legs:** This is the most common site for **Superficial Spreading Melanoma** in females. * **Trunk:** This is the most common site for **Superficial Spreading Melanoma** in males. * **Soles:** This is the characteristic site for **Acral Lentiginous Melanoma**, which is the most common clinical subtype of melanoma in Asians and dark-skinned individuals. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Hutchinson’s Melanotic Freckle:** Another name for Lentigo Maligna. * **Growth Pattern:** LMM has a prolonged **radial growth phase** (often lasting 5–15 years) before entering the vertical growth phase. * **Demographics:** It is most commonly seen in the elderly (6th–7th decade). * **Histopathology:** Characterized by a linear proliferation of atypical melanocytes along the dermo-epidermal junction (lentiginous pattern) with underlying solar elastosis.
Question 39: What is the most common intraoral site for pigmented nevi?
- A. Hard palate (Correct Answer)
- B. Buccal mucosa
- C. Lips
- D. Floor of mouth
Explanation: **Explanation:** Intraoral pigmented nevi are relatively uncommon compared to cutaneous nevi, but they represent an important clinical entity in dermatology and oral pathology. **1. Why the Hard Palate is Correct:** The **hard palate** is the most frequent site for oral melanocytic nevi, accounting for approximately **40% of all cases**. This is followed by the gingiva. Histologically, the most common type found in the oral cavity is the **intramucosal nevus** (the mucosal equivalent of an intradermal nevus), which presents as a well-circumscribed, asymptomatic, pigmented macule or papule. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Buccal mucosa:** While pigmented lesions like smoker’s melanosis or amalgam tattoos are common here, melanocytic nevi are significantly less frequent in this location compared to the palate. * **C. Lips:** The lips (especially the lower lip) are the most common site for **labial melanotic macules**, but not for true melanocytic nevi. * **D. Floor of mouth:** This is an extremely rare site for nevi. Pigmentation in this area should be approached with high suspicion for other pathologies. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common histological type:** Intramucosal nevus (unlike skin, where junctional nevi are common in younger patients). * **Clinical Significance:** Because the hard palate is also the most common site for **oral melanoma**, any pigmented lesion in this area that shows irregularity in color, border, or sudden growth must be biopsied to rule out malignancy. * **Rule of Thumb:** "Palate and Gingiva" are the high-yield "hotspots" for both benign nevi and malignant melanoma in the oral cavity.
Question 40: Which cancer is known to develop in chronic ulcers?
- A. Malignant melanoma
- B. Basal cell carcinoma
- C. Squamous cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Kaposi sarcoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)**. The development of SCC in the setting of chronic inflammation, scarring, or long-standing ulcers is a well-recognized phenomenon. When SCC arises specifically within a chronic burn scar or a long-standing wound (such as chronic osteomyelitis sinuses or venous ulcers), it is clinically referred to as a **Marjolin’s ulcer**. The underlying mechanism involves chronic tissue irritation and repeated attempts at repair, which lead to malignant transformation of the keratinocytes. **Analysis of Options:** * **Malignant Melanoma:** Arises from melanocytes. While it can occur on the soles (Acral lentiginous melanoma), it is not typically associated with chronic inflammatory ulcers. * **Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC):** The most common skin cancer, primarily caused by UV radiation. While it can ulcerate (rodent ulcer), it rarely *originates* from a pre-existing chronic wound or scar. * **Kaposi Sarcoma:** A vascular tumor associated with HHV-8 infection, typically presenting as purplish plaques or nodules, not as a transformation of a chronic ulcer. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Marjolin’s Ulcer:** Characteristically more aggressive than UV-induced SCC, with a higher potential for metastasis. * **Common Sites:** Most frequently seen in old burn scars (cicatrix) and chronic osteomyelitis tracks. * **Biopsy Rule:** Any chronic ulcer that develops "everted edges," exuberant granulation tissue, or fails to heal despite treatment must be biopsied to rule out SCC. * **Bowen’s Disease:** This is SCC *in-situ* (confined to the epidermis).
Practice by Chapter
Benign Epithelial Tumors
Practice Questions
Premalignant Epidermal Tumors
Practice Questions
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Practice Questions
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Practice Questions
Melanocytic Nevi
Practice Questions
Melanoma
Practice Questions
Merkel Cell Carcinoma
Practice Questions
Vascular Tumors and Malformations
Practice Questions
Cutaneous Lymphomas
Practice Questions
Soft Tissue Tumors
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Metastatic Skin Tumors
Practice Questions
Skin Cancer Prevention and Screening
Practice Questions
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