Skin Tumors Practice Questions

Q: Elderly man with a long-standing mole on his face that is increasing in size and showing an irregular border. Diagnosis:

Lentigo maligna. ***Lentigo maligna*** - This type of melanoma commonly affects **elderly individuals** and presents as a **slowly enlarging, irregularly bordered, flat or slightly raised pigmented lesion** on sun-exposed areas like the face. - It often has a **long radial growth phase** before progressing to invasive lentigo maligna melanoma. *Superficial spreading melanoma* - While common, it typically presents on the **trunk or extremities** and has a faster growth rate compared to lentigo maligna. - It often appears as a **flat, asymmetrical lesion with varied colors and irregular borders**, but the age and location details point away from this. *Nodular melanoma* - This is an **aggressive form** that grows vertically from the start, presenting as a **dark, raised, often ulcerated nodule** and typically has a shorter history of rapid growth. - It lacks the characteristic long-standing, flat growth pattern described in the elderly patient's face. *Acral melanoma* - This rare type occurs on the **palms, soles, or under the nails (subungual)**, not typically on the face. - It often appears as a **pigmented streak or patch** in these acral locations.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST significant risk factor for cutaneous lymphoma?

Weakened immune system. ***Weakened immune system*** - A **compromised immune system** (e.g., due to HIV/AIDS, organ transplantation, or immunosuppressive therapy) is the **most significant** risk factor for developing cutaneous lymphomas. - Immunosuppression impairs immune surveillance, allowing malignant lymphocyte proliferation in the skin. - **HIV-infected patients** have a significantly higher risk of developing both Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, including cutaneous variants. - **Organ transplant recipients** on chronic immunosuppressive therapy show markedly increased risk. *Older age* - While **older age** is indeed a risk factor (mycosis fungoides typically presents in the 5th-6th decade), it is a **demographic association** rather than a directly modifiable or mechanistic risk factor. - Age-related risk is less pronounced compared to the dramatically elevated risk seen with immunosuppression. *Male gender* - **Male gender** is associated with higher incidence of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (approximately 2:1 male:female ratio), making it a recognized epidemiologic risk factor. - However, the **magnitude of risk** is modest compared to immunosuppression, which can increase risk several-fold. *Chronic skin conditions* - While some **chronic inflammatory skin conditions** may rarely be associated with lymphoma development, they are **not established primary risk factors** for the heterogeneous group of cutaneous lymphomas. - The pathogenesis of cutaneous lymphomas primarily involves **lymphocyte dysregulation**, not chronic keratinocyte inflammation.

Q: In which part of the body are lesions of Kaposi sarcoma most commonly seen?

Lower extremities. ***Lower extremities*** - Kaposi sarcoma lesions most frequently appear on the **skin of the lower extremities**, especially the feet and ankles. - This predilection is thought to be due to increased **venous stasis** or other local factors. *Upper extremities* - While Kaposi sarcoma can affect the upper extremities, it is a **less common primary site** compared to the lower limbs. - Lesions here are more likely to appear as the disease **progresses or disseminates**. *Torso* - Kaposi sarcoma lesions can occur on the torso, particularly on the **trunk**, but it is not the most common initial presentation. - Visceral involvement of the **gastrointestinal tract** and lungs can often present without skin lesions on the torso. *Head and neck* - Lesions of Kaposi sarcoma can appear on the head and neck, especially on the **face and oral cavity**, particularly in classic Kaposi sarcoma or in individuals with advanced immunosuppression. - However, this is still **less frequent** than involvement of the lower extremities.

Q: Which of the following statements about Bowen's disease is correct?

It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.. ***It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.*** - **Bowen's disease** is, by definition, **squamous cell carcinoma in situ (SCC in situ)**. - It is characterized by full-thickness epidermal atypia of keratinocytes **without invasion through the basement membrane**. - This statement is **definitional** and represents the fundamental nature of what Bowen's disease is, making it the **best answer** among the options. *Chronic sun exposure is a known risk factor.* - This statement is **medically accurate**. Chronic UV exposure is indeed a well-established risk factor for Bowen's disease. - However, this describes a **risk factor** rather than defining what the condition is. - Other risk factors include **arsenic exposure**, **ionizing radiation**, **immunosuppression**, and **HPV infection** (particularly in anogenital sites). - While true, this is not as fundamental as the definitional statement. *It is more common in fair-skinned individuals.* - This statement is also **medically accurate**. Bowen's disease occurs more frequently in fair-skinned individuals (Fitzpatrick skin types I-II). - Fair skin provides less melanin protection against UV damage, increasing susceptibility to various forms of skin cancer including Bowen's disease. - However, this describes **epidemiology** rather than defining the condition itself. *There is a link between HSV infection and Bowen's disease.* - This statement is **incorrect**. There is **no established association** between Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Bowen's disease. - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)**, particularly high-risk types 16 and 18, is associated with Bowen's disease, especially in anogenital locations. - This represents a common confusion between HSV and HPV.

Q: All of the following are premalignant conditions except which of the following?

Pyoderma Gangrenosum. ***Pyoderma Gangrenosum*** - This is a **neutrophilic dermatosis** characterized by rapidly enlarging, painful ulcers with undermined, violaceous borders. It is an inflammatory condition, not premalignant. - While often associated with systemic diseases such as **inflammatory bowel disease** or **rheumatoid arthritis**, it does not inherently carry an increased risk of developing into skin cancer. *Bowen's Disease* - This is a form of **squamous cell carcinoma in situ**, meaning the cancerous cells are confined to the epidermis and have not yet invaded the dermis. - It is considered a **premalignant lesion** because it has the potential to progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated. *Actinic Keratosis* - These are **rough, scaly patches** on the skin caused by years of sun exposure, predominantly in fair-skinned individuals. - Actinic keratoses are considered **premalignant lesions** with a risk of transforming into invasive squamous cell carcinoma. *Xeroderma Pigmentosum* - This is a rare, **autosomal recessive genetic disorder** characterized by a defect in DNA repair mechanisms, specifically nucleotide excision repair. - Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosum have an extremely high risk of developing various **skin cancers** (basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma) at an early age due to their inability to repair UV-induced DNA damage.

Q: What is the most likely diagnosis for a 15 mm hyperpigmented lesion on the shoulder that is enlarging and has hair growing from it?

Becker nevus. ***Correct: Becker nevus*** This diagnosis is supported by the description of a **hyperpigmented lesion** that is **enlarging** and has **hair growing from it**, typically appearing during adolescence or young adulthood. **Becker nevus** often presents as an **irregular, hyperpigmented patch**, usually on the shoulder or upper trunk, and is characteristically associated with **hypertrichosis** (increased terminal hair growth). The combination of location (shoulder), enlargement, and hair growth in a 15 mm lesion is classic for Becker nevus. *Incorrect: Melanocytic nevus* While **melanocytic nevi** are hyperpigmented, they typically do not continue to **enlarge significantly** after childhood and generally do not develop new onset **hypertrichosis** as a primary feature. The size (15 mm) and progressive growth combined with hair development are more characteristic of a Becker nevus than a common melanocytic nevus. *Incorrect: Sebaceous nevus* **Sebaceous nevi** are typically **yellow-orange to tan, waxy plaques**, often on the scalp or face, with a cobblestone or papillomatous texture. They are not primarily characterized by **hyperpigmentation** and terminal hair growth, but rather by sebaceous gland proliferation. *Incorrect: Comedo nevus* A **comedo nevus** presents as a linear or unilateral group of **dilated follicular openings** filled with keratinous material, resembling blackheads. It is not characterized by diffuse **hyperpigmentation** or the increased terminal hair growth described in this case.

Q: A 15cm hyperpigmented macule on an adolescent male undergoes changes such as coarseness, growth of hair & acne. Diagnosis is?

Becker nevus. ***Becker nevus*** - A Becker nevus is a **hyperpigmented patch** that typically appears during adolescence in males, often on the shoulder or upper trunk. - It characteristically becomes **hairy (hypertrichosis)**, more coarse, and can develop acne within the lesion, particularly during puberty due to androgen sensitivity. *Melanocytic nevus* - While melanocytic nevi are hyperpigmented, they generally do not show the characteristic changes of **coarseness, significant hair growth, or acne** within the lesion during adolescence. - They are typically stable in size and texture after initial development, with changes raising concern for **melanoma**. *Sebaceous nevus* - A sebaceous nevus is a **congenital lesion** often appearing as a yellowish-orange, waxy, or bumpy patch, usually on the scalp or face. - It does not typically present as a large, flat hyperpigmented macule that develops hair and acne in adolescence; instead, it may become verrucous or develop tumors in adulthood. *Sebaceous adenoma* - A sebaceous adenoma is a **benign tumor** of the sebaceous glands, usually appearing as a small, solitary, flesh-colored to yellowish papule or nodule, especially on the face. - It is not typically seen as a large, hyperpigmented macule that grows hair and acne over a broad area, as described in the question.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of skin tags (acrochordons)?

They are typically pedunculated.. ***They are typically pedunculated.*** - **Skin tags (acrochordons)** are benign soft tissue tumors characterized by their **pedunculated morphology** - they are attached to the skin by a narrow stalk or pedicle. - This **pedunculated appearance** is the **most characteristic** and **defining feature** that distinguishes them from other benign skin lesions. - They are typically **soft, flesh-colored or hyperpigmented**, and range from 1-5 mm in size. *They commonly occur on the neck and axilla.* - While **skin tags** frequently occur in areas of friction such as the neck, axilla, eyelids, groin, and inframammary folds, this **location is not specific**. - Many other skin conditions also favor these sites, so location alone is not a characteristic diagnostic feature. *They are associated with seborrhoeic keratosis.* - There is **no established clinical association** between skin tags and seborrheic keratoses. - Both are common **benign skin growths** in adults but represent different pathological entities with different clinical appearances. *They have malignant potential.* - This is **incorrect**. Skin tags are **benign fibrous polyps** with **no malignant potential**. - They do not require removal unless symptomatic or for cosmetic reasons.

Q: Muir–Torre syndrome shows

Sebaceous gland tumors. ***Sebaceous gland tumors*** - **Muir-Torre syndrome** is a genetic condition characterized by the presence of at least one **sebaceous gland tumor** (adenoma, epithelioma, or carcinoma) and at least one internal malignancy. - It is considered a variant of **Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer - HNPCC)**, stemming from germline mutations in **DNA mismatch repair genes**. *Intestinal polyps (associated with familial adenomatous polyposis)* - While Lynch syndrome (to which Muir-Torre is related) does involve an increased risk of colorectal cancer, **multiple intestinal polyps** are the hallmark of **Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)**. - FAP is caused by a mutation in the **APC gene**, distinct from the mismatch repair gene mutations seen in Muir-Torre syndrome. *Lisch nodules (associated with Neurofibromatosis type 1)* - **Lisch nodules** are benign **iris hamartomas** typically found in patients with **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)**. - NF1 is a neurocutaneous disorder caused by a mutation in the **NF1 gene**, presenting with café-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, and optic gliomas, which are unrelated to Muir-Torre syndrome. *Hyperelastic joints (associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)* - **Hyperelasticity of joints** and skin is a characteristic feature of **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)**, a group of heritable disorders affecting connective tissue. - EDS is caused by defects in **collagen synthesis or processing**, and its clinical manifestations are distinct from the mucocutaneous and internal malignancies seen in Muir-Torre syndrome.

Q: Which of the following is a common differential diagnosis of verrucous carcinoma?

Condylomata acuminata. ***Condylomata acuminata*** - Both **verrucous carcinoma** and **condylomata acuminata** present as **warty, exophytic lesions**, making differentiation difficult without biopsy. - While verrucous carcinoma is a **well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma**, condylomata acuminata are benign **genital warts caused by HPV**, highlighting the need for careful diagnosis. *Condylomata lata* - These are **flat, moist, broad-based lesions** associated with **secondary syphilis**, which are distinct from the more exophytic, warty appearance of verrucous carcinoma. - They are typically **painless and highly infectious**, and a diagnosis of syphilis would be confirmed with serological tests. *Adenocarcinoma* - **Adenocarcinomas** originate from **glandular tissue** and typically present as **ulcerative, infiltrative, or polypoid masses**, not wart-like growths. - Their histological features involve **glandular differentiation**, which is fundamentally different from the squamous cell proliferation seen in verrucous carcinoma. *Tuberculosis* - Cutaneous tuberculosis can present in various forms, including **lupus vulgaris** or **scrofuloderma**, but typically does not produce the large, verrucous, cauliflower-like growths seen in verrucous carcinoma. - Diagnosis commonly relies on **histopathology showing granulomas** with caseous necrosis and **acid-fast bacilli**, differing from squamous cell malignancy.

Question 1

Elderly man with a long-standing mole on his face that is increasing in size and showing an irregular border. Diagnosis:

Accepted Answer

Lentigo maligna

Answer

Superficial spreading melanoma

Answer

Nodular melanoma

Answer

Acral melanoma

Question 2

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk factor for cutaneous lymphoma?

Accepted Answer

Weakened immune system

Answer

Older age

Answer

Male gender

Answer

Chronic skin conditions

Question 3

In which part of the body are lesions of Kaposi sarcoma most commonly seen?

Accepted Answer

Lower extremities

Answer

Upper extremities

Answer

Torso

Answer

Head and neck

Question 4

Which of the following statements about Bowen's disease is correct?

Accepted Answer

It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ.

Answer

Chronic sun exposure is a known risk factor.

Answer

It is more common in fair-skinned individuals.

Answer

There is a link between HSV infection and Bowen's disease.

Question 5

All of the following are premalignant conditions except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

Answer

Bowen's Disease

Answer

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

Answer

Actinic Keratosis

Question 6

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 15 mm hyperpigmented lesion on the shoulder that is enlarging and has hair growing from it?

Accepted Answer

Becker nevus

Answer

Melanocytic nevus

Answer

Sebaceous nevus

Answer

Comedo nevus

Question 7

A 15cm hyperpigmented macule on an adolescent male undergoes changes such as coarseness, growth of hair & acne. Diagnosis is?

Accepted Answer

Becker nevus

Answer

Melanocytic nevus

Answer

Sebaceous nevus

Answer

Sebaceous adenoma

Question 8

Which of the following is the MOST characteristic feature of skin tags (acrochordons)?

Accepted Answer

They are typically pedunculated.

Answer

They commonly occur on the neck and axilla.

Answer

They have malignant potential.

Answer

They are associated with seborrhoeic keratosis.

Question 9

Muir–Torre syndrome shows

Accepted Answer

Sebaceous gland tumors

Answer

Intestinal polyps

Answer

Lisch nodules

Answer

Hyperelastic joints

Question 10

Which of the following is a common differential diagnosis of verrucous carcinoma?

Accepted Answer

Condylomata acuminata

Answer

Condylomata lata

Answer

Adenocarcinoma

Answer

Tuberculosis

Skin Tumors — MCQs

Skin Tumors — MCQs

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