Acne and Related Disorders — MCQs

Acne and Related Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 51: What is the most appropriate treatment for severe acne?

A. Topical Tretinoin
B. Antibiotics
C. Steroids
D. Isotretinoin (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Isotretinoin***- This is the most effective and definitive treatment for **severe nodular or cystic acne** that has failed to respond to conventional treatments like topical agents and oral antibiotics. - It is a systemic retinoid that targets all four major pathogenic factors of acne: reducing **sebum production**, normalizing follicular keratinization, inhibiting *Cutibacterium acnes*, and providing anti-inflammatory effects.*Topical Tretinoin*- Topical retinoids are the first-line agents, primarily effective for **mild to moderate comedonal acne**. - They lack the necessary systemic penetration and potency to resolve deep-seated inflammation and nodules characteristic of **severe acne**.*Steroids*- Systemic steroids are generally reserved for highly specific, severe, and acute inflammatory complications of acne, such as **acne fulminans**, or used short-term to manage Isotretinoin-induced flares. - They are not the standard long-term treatment for severe acne due to significant systemic side effects and the fact that they do not address the underlying pathology of **sebum hypersecretion**.*Antibiotics*- Oral antibiotics (e.g., **doxycycline, minocycline**) are indicated for **moderate inflammatory acne**, often combined with topical retinoids. - They are typically insufficient as monotherapy for severe, scarring, nodulocystic acne, and overuse contributes significantly to **antibiotic resistance**.

Question 52: An 18-year-old female patient comes with the following findings. Which of the following is pathognomonic of the primary stage of this disease?

A. Pustule
B. Abscess
C. Comedone (Correct Answer)
D. Papule

Explanation: ***Comedone*** - The **comedo** is the primary, pathognomonic lesion of **acne vulgaris**. It is a non-inflammatory lesion formed by a blocked **pilosebaceous unit** with sebum and keratinocytes. - Comedones can be open (**blackheads**) or closed (**whiteheads**) and are the precursor to all inflammatory acne lesions like papules and pustules. *Papule* - A **papule** is a small, solid, raised inflammatory lesion that develops when a comedo ruptures, leading to an inflammatory response. - It represents a progression from the non-inflammatory primary stage to **inflammatory acne** and is therefore not the initial lesion. *Pustule* - A **pustule** is a superficial inflammatory lesion containing visible purulent material (pus), which typically evolves from a papule. - The presence of pus signifies a more advanced inflammatory process involving **Propionibacterium acnes** and neutrophils, not the primary stage. *Abscess* - An **abscess** is a deep, painful, pus-filled lesion that is characteristic of severe **nodulocystic acne**, a more advanced form of the disease. - This represents a severe inflammatory response and is not the primary lesion, which is much smaller and non-inflammatory.

Question 53: Which of the following is the first-line topical treatment for mild to moderate acne vulgaris?

A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Topical antibiotics alone
C. Topical antifungals
D. Topical retinoids (tretinoin) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Topical Retinoids (Tretinoin)*** - Considered the **primary first-line topical agent** for mild-to-moderate acne vulgaris due to their potent **comedolytic action**, normalizing follicular keratinization, and **anti-inflammatory effects**. - Topical retinoids (tretinoin, adapalene, tazarotene) are effective against both **comedonal and inflammatory lesions**, making them the foundation of acne treatment. - They prevent microcomedone formation and are recommended by most international guidelines as the **cornerstone of acne therapy**. - Often combined with benzoyl peroxide or topical antibiotics for enhanced efficacy in inflammatory acne. *Topical Antibiotics Alone* - Topical antibiotics such as clindamycin or erythromycin should **never be used as monotherapy** due to rapid development of **antibiotic resistance**. - They must be combined with benzoyl peroxide or retinoids to minimize resistance. - Not considered first-line monotherapy for acne management. *Topical Corticosteroids* - Topical corticosteroids are **contraindicated in acne vulgaris** as they can worsen the condition by causing **steroid-induced acne** (acne venenata). - They may also cause skin atrophy, telangiectasia, and perioral dermatitis with prolonged use. - Have no role in standard acne treatment. *Topical Antifungals* - Antifungals have **no role in acne vulgaris treatment** as the condition is primarily caused by *Cutibacterium acnes* (bacteria), comedone formation, and sebum production. - Antifungals are used for fungal conditions like tinea, candidiasis, or *Malassezia* folliculitis, which can mimic acne but is a different entity.

Question 54: A 25-year-old girl presents with papules, erythema and telangiectasia over the face as shown below. She also gives a history of flushing and burning sensation on exposure to sun and on any emotional disturbance. The most likely diagnosis is? (AIIMS Nov 2016)

A. Acne vulgaris
B. Rosacea (Correct Answer)
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Scabies

Explanation: ***Correct: Rosacea*** - The presentation of **facial erythema**, **papules**, **telangiectasias**, and chronic **flushing with burning sensation** in response to triggers like sun exposure or emotional stress is highly characteristic of rosacea. - Rosacea typically affects the **central face**, sparing the perioral and periorbital areas (though not always strictly) and lacks the **comedones** seen in acne. - This is a classic presentation that distinguishes rosacea from other facial dermatoses. *Incorrect: Acne vulgaris* - While acne can present with papules and erythema, it is primarily characterized by the presence of **comedones** (blackheads and whiteheads), which are absent in rosacea. - Acne flushing is less common and is not typically triggered by emotional changes or sun exposure in the same way as rosacea. *Incorrect: Systemic lupus erythematosus* - SLE can cause facial rashes, most notably the **malar "butterfly" rash**, but it is generally an erythematous rash, and typical features like papules, pustules, and prominent telangiectasias are less common. - Systemic symptoms like **arthralgia**, **fatigue**, and photosensitivity are usually present in SLE. *Incorrect: Scabies* - Scabies presents with intensely **pruritic papules**, vesicles, and burrows, typically in interdigital spaces, wrists, elbows, and genitals, and rarely primarily on the face in adults. - The characteristic symptoms of flushing and telangiectasia are not associated with scabies infestation.

Question 55: A young boy with oily skin presents with acne as shown. What is the appropriate treatment?

A. Oral isotretinoin
B. Oral steroid
C. Topical retinoic acid (Correct Answer)
D. Benzoyl peroxide

Explanation: ***Topical retinoic acid*** - The image shows **comedonal acne** with numerous small bumps, which typically responds well to topical retinoids like retinoic acid. - **Topical retinoids** work by normalizing follicular keratinization and reducing comedone formation, making them the **first-line treatment** for comedonal and mild to moderate inflammatory acne. - Retinoids are superior to other agents for comedonal acne due to their comedolytic properties. *Oral isotretinoin* - **Oral isotretinoin** is reserved for **severe cystic or nodular acne**, or acne that is unresponsive to other treatments, which does not appear to be the case here. - It has significant side effects and requires close monitoring, making it inappropriate for the initial treatment of mild to moderate acne. *Oral steroid* - **Oral steroids** are not a primary treatment for acne and are usually reserved for severe, **fulminant acne** (like acne conglobata) or to manage acute exacerbations of inflammatory acne due to their numerous side effects. - Their primary role is potent **anti-inflammatory action**, but they do not address the underlying pathogenesis of acne. *Benzoyl peroxide* - **Benzoyl peroxide** is effective against **inflammatory acne** due to its antibacterial and keratolytic properties. - While it can be used for comedonal acne and is often combined with retinoids for enhanced efficacy, **topical retinoids are preferred as monotherapy** for predominantly comedonal acne as shown in this image. - Benzoyl peroxide is particularly useful when there are inflammatory lesions (papules, pustules) present.

Question 56: What does the given image show?

A. Acne vulgaris
B. Acne conglobata (Correct Answer)
C. Acne venenata
D. Acne fulminans

Explanation: ***Acne conglobata*** - The image shows numerous interconnected cysts, abscesses, nodules, and irregular scarring, which are characteristic features of **acne conglobata**, a severe form of acne. - This condition is often associated with significant inflammation and can lead to extensive **disfiguring scars**. *Acne vulgaris* - This is the most common type of acne and typically presents with **comedones (blackheads and whiteheads)**, papules, and pustules. - It does not usually involve the widespread interconnected cysts, abscesses, and severe scarring seen in the image. *Acne venenata* - This term refers to acne caused by **external chemical irritants** or occupational exposure. - While it can manifest with various acne lesions, the morphology in the image, characterized by deep, interconnected lesions and extensive scarring, does not specifically suggest an external cause. *Acne fulminans* - This is an **acute, severe, and rare form of acne** characterized by the sudden onset of widespread nodular and ulcerative lesions, often accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever and joint pain. - Although very severe, acne fulminans typically presents with **ulcerative and hemorrhagic lesions**, which are not the predominant features shown in the image, where interconnected cysts and scarring are more prominent.

Question 57: All are true about the condition shown in the figure except: (Recent NEET Pattern 2016-17)

A. Interconnecting sinus tracts (Correct Answer)
B. Patulous pilo-sebaceous orifices
C. Foul smelling cheesy material
D. Can lead to difficulty in breathing

Explanation: ***Interconnecting sinus tracts*** - This is a characteristic feature of **Acne Conglobata**, NOT rhinophyma. Acne conglobata is a severe form of nodulocystic acne characterized by multiple interconnected comedones, abscesses, cysts, and draining sinus tracts, typically affecting the trunk, face, and neck. - **Rhinophyma** is a severe manifestation of rosacea involving progressive hypertrophy of sebaceous glands and connective tissue of the nose, producing a bulbous, enlarged appearance. It does **not** feature interconnecting sinus tracts. - This is the FALSE statement about rhinophyma, making it the correct answer for this "except" question. *Patulous pilo-sebaceous orifices* - This is a **hallmark feature of rhinophyma**. The sebaceous gland hyperplasia leads to markedly **dilated follicular openings** (patulous orifices) on the nasal surface. - These prominent, enlarged pores are a key diagnostic sign and contribute to the characteristic cobblestone appearance of the affected nose. *Foul smelling cheesy material* - The hypertrophied sebaceous glands in **rhinophyma** produce excessive sebum which accumulates in the dilated follicular openings. - This material consists of **keratin plugs, sebum, and bacterial debris**, often presenting as a foul-smelling, cheesy substance that can be expressed from the enlarged pores. *Can lead to difficulty in breathing* - **TRUE for severe rhinophyma**. Progressive nasal tissue hypertrophy can cause **external nasal valve obstruction** and narrowing of the nasal airways, leading to breathing difficulties. - Severe cases may require **surgical intervention** (e.g., laser therapy, surgical excision) not only for cosmetic reasons but also to relieve nasal obstruction and improve airflow. - This is a recognized complication documented in dermatology and otolaryngology literature.

Question 58: A 25-year-old female presents with the following lesions in the axilla, as shown by the arrow:

A. Hidradenitis Suppurativa (Correct Answer)
B. Acne fulminans
C. Acne conglobata
D. Fox-Fordyce disease

Explanation: ***Hidradenitis Suppurativa*** - This image displays typical features of Hidradenitis Suppurativa, including **inflamed nodules**, **abscesses**, and **sinus tracts** in the intertriginous region (axilla in this case). - The disease commonly affects areas with **apocrine glands** and is characterized by chronic inflammation and scarring. *Fox-Fordyce disease* - This condition involves an **obstruction of apocrine sweat ducts**, leading to pruritic papules in apocrine gland-bearing areas. - While it affects similar anatomical locations as hidradenitis suppurativa, it does not typically present with the same degree of inflammation, deep nodules, abscesses, or sinus tracts. *Acne fulminans* - This is a rare and severe form of **acne vulgaris** characterized by the sudden onset of aggressive, ulcerative, and extensively inflamed nodules, cysts, and plaques with systemic symptoms like fever and arthralgia. - It primarily affects the **face, chest, and back**, not typically the axilla, and is associated with systemic inflammation. *Acne conglobata* - A severe form of **nodulocystic acne** characterized by interconnected abscesses, cysts, and sinus tracts, often leaving significant scarring. - While it involves extensive inflammation and sinus tracts, it primarily affects the **trunk and face**, not characteristically the axilla as the primary site of presentation in images like this.

Question 59: A young male smoker presents with long standing history of lesions in axilla. All are correct about the image shown below except:

A. Hurley staging
B. Hidradenitis suppurativa
C. Topical clindamycin
D. Patulous pilo-sebaceous orifices (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Patulous pilo-sebaceous orifices*** - **Hidradenitis suppurativa** (HS) is characterized by **follicular occlusion** and inflammation, leading to sinus tracts and abscesses, not patulous (widened) orifices. The initial lesion in HS is a follicular blockage, typically of the terminal hair follicle. - While HS is a disease of the **folliculopilosebaceous unit**, the primary problem is occlusion and rupture, not abnormally wide openings. *Hurley staging* - **Hurley staging** is a widely used clinical classification system for assessing the severity of hidradenitis suppurativa, ranging from stage I (isolated abscesses) to stage III (diffuse involvement with interconnected tracts and abscesses). - This staging helps guide management and prognosis for patients with HS. *Hidradenitis suppurativa* - The image displays classic features of **hidradenitis suppurativa**, including recurrent painful nodules, abscesses, and complex scarring with sinus tracts in the axilla, a common site for the condition. - The patient's history of being a **smoker** and having **long-standing lesions** in the axilla is highly consistent with risk factors and typical presentation of HS. *Topical clindamycin* - **Topical clindamycin** is a common first-line treatment for mild to moderate **hidradenitis suppurativa** (Hurley stage I and early stage II) to reduce bacterial colonization and inflammation. - It is used in conjunction with other management strategies, including hygiene, lifestyle modifications, and sometimes systemic medications or surgical intervention for more severe cases.

Question 60: A patient presents with 1-year history of painful nodulocystic acne as shown in the image. Which of the following is the drug of choice for this case?

A. Topical clindamycin
B. Oral isotretinoin (Correct Answer)
C. Topical adapalene
D. Oral doxycycline

Explanation: ***Oral isotretinoin*** - This patient presents with severe **nodulocystic acne**, which is characterized by deep, painful lesions that often lead to scarring, and has been present for 1 year. Oral isotretinoin is the **drug of choice** for severe, recalcitrant nodulocystic acne due to its ability to target all four pathogenic factors of acne. - Isotretinoin reduces **sebum production**, normalizes follicular keratinization, decreases *P. acnes* colonization, and has anti-inflammatory effects, making it highly effective for severe cases. *Topical clindamycin* - **Topical clindamycin** is an antibiotic primarily used for mild to moderate inflammatory acne, particularly papules and pustules. - It is **insufficient** for severe nodulocystic acne due to its limited penetration and inability to address the deeper, more severe inflammation and scarring potential. *Topical adapalene* - **Topical adapalene** is a retinoid used for mild to moderate comedonal and inflammatory acne. It helps normalize follicular keratinization and has anti-inflammatory properties. - While effective for less severe acne, it is generally **not potent enough** to treat severe nodulocystic acne effectively, especially given its chronic nature as described. *Oral doxycycline* - **Oral doxycycline** is a systemic antibiotic used for moderate to severe inflammatory acne, primarily due to its anti-inflammatory properties and its effect on reducing *P. acnes*. - Although it can be used for severe acne, it is **less effective** than oral isotretinoin for nodulocystic acne, especially in the long-term, and does not address the underlying pathogenesis (like sebaceous gland activity) as comprehensively as isotretinoin.

Practice by Chapter

Acne Vulgaris: Pathophysiology

Practice Questions

Acne Vulgaris: Clinical Types

Practice Questions

Acne Vulgaris: Management

Practice Questions

Acne in Special Populations

Practice Questions

Rosacea

Practice Questions

Perioral Dermatitis

Practice Questions

Hidradenitis Suppurativa

Practice Questions

Acne Keloidalis Nuchae

Practice Questions

Acne Scarring and Its Management

Practice Questions

Psychological Aspects of Acne

Practice Questions

Diet and Acne

Practice Questions

Newer Therapies in Acne Management

Practice Questions

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