Infectious Diseases Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?

Passive. ***Passive*** - Under the NTEP, **passive screening** involves individuals presenting to health facilities with symptoms suggestive of TB. - This method relies on **patient self-reporting** and healthcare provider suspicion, rather than active outreach. - Passive case finding is the **primary screening strategy** used across the general population in the NTEP framework. *Active* - **Active screening** involves community-based interventions to proactively identify individuals with TB, often in high-risk populations. - While active case finding is crucial for specific vulnerable groups (contacts, HIV patients, etc.), it is **not the primary screening method** under the standard NTEP framework for initial detection across the entire population. *Mass* - **Mass screening** involves testing large numbers of people in the general population, regardless of symptoms, to detect disease. - This is generally **cost-prohibitive** and not routinely implemented as a primary screening strategy for TB by the NTEP due to resource limitations and low yield in the general population. *None of the options* - **Passive screening** is indeed a primary method used under the NTEP, making this option incorrect. - The NTEP heavily relies on individuals seeking care when they experience symptoms, which aligns with the definition of passive case finding.

Q: Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?

DEC. ***Correct: DEC*** - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is the drug of choice for **mass drug administration (MDA)** campaigns aimed at eliminating lymphatic filariasis. - It effectively kills **microfilariae** and has some action on adult worms, reducing transmission. - In India's National Filariasis Elimination Programme, DEC is administered along with Albendazole in annual MDA campaigns. *Incorrect: Albendazole* - While **Albendazole** is co-administered with DEC in MDA programs, it is not the sole drug of choice for mass treatment of filariasis. - Its primary role is to provide **macrofilaricidal** activity (killing adult worms) and co-treatment for other helminth infections. - It enhances the effect of DEC but is not used alone. *Incorrect: Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is used in MDA programs for filariasis, particularly in areas co-endemic with **onchocerciasis** or where **Loa loa** is prevalent (as DEC is contraindicated in these areas). - However, in India and most lymphatic filariasis endemic areas, **DEC** remains the primary drug. *Incorrect: Mebendazole* - **Mebendazole** is an anthelminthic primarily used for treating **intestinal nematode infections** like ascariasis, trichuriasis, and hookworm. - It is **not used** in lymphatic filariasis mass treatment programs.

Q: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?

Objective is API < 1 per 10,000. ***Objective is API < 1 per 10,000*** - The correct objective for the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** in the 2012-2017 strategic plan for malaria control was to reduce it to **less than 1 per 1,000 population**, not 1 per 10,000, making this statement incorrect. - This metric measures the number of new malaria cases per 1,000 people per year. *50% reduction in mortality by 2017* - A key objective of the **National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India** (which this strategic plan aimed to contribute to) was indeed to achieve a significant reduction in malaria-related mortality. - Specifically, aiming for a **50% reduction in mortality** by 2017 was a stated goal to lessen the disease burden. *Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017* - One of the primary goals of the **Malaria Control Strategic Plan 2012-2017** was to reduce the annual parasite incidence (API) to **less than 1 per 1,000 population** in all endemic areas. - This target focused on decreasing the occurrence of new malaria cases. *Complete treatment to 100% of patients* - A core component of malaria control strategies emphasizes ensuring that **all confirmed malaria cases** receive complete and effective treatment. - Achieving **100% complete treatment adherence** is crucial to prevent drug resistance and eliminate the parasite reservoir.

Q: Human, animal, fomite or objects from which infective organism enters the host is called?

Source of infection. ***Source of infection*** - The **source of infection** refers to the person, animal, object, or substance from which an infectious agent passes immediately to a host. - This can include humans, animals, fomites, or contaminated objects that directly transmit the infectious organism. - This is the proximate source from which the agent enters the host. *Infective Reservoir* - An **infective reservoir** is the long-term habitat where an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies. - The reservoir can be human, animal, plant, soil, or inanimate matter where the agent is normally found. - While a reservoir can be a source, the source is specifically the immediate point from which transmission occurs. *Infective Carrier* - An **infective carrier** is an infected person or animal that harbors a specific infectious agent without showing clinical symptoms but can transmit it to others. - A carrier is a type of source (when transmission occurs from them), but the term "source" is broader, encompassing inanimate objects and fomites as well. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **Source of infection** accurately describes the concept presented in the question.

Q: Pneumonic plague is spread by:

Droplet infection. ***Correct: Droplet infection*** - Pneumonic plague is a severe form of plague that affects the **lungs** and is transmitted through **respiratory droplets** expelled by an infected person or animal during coughing or sneezing. - This direct person-to-person transmission distinguishes it from other forms of plague. - It is the **only form of plague** that can spread directly from human to human without an animal or flea vector. *Incorrect: Bite of infected flea* - This is the primary mode of transmission for **bubonic plague**, where the bacterium *Yersinia pestis* is transmitted from rodents to humans via infected fleas. - While bubonic plague can progress to pneumonic plague, the initial transmission route for the pneumonic form itself is not flea bites. *Incorrect: Direct contact with infected tissue* - Direct contact with infected tissues or fluids can lead to **septicemic plague** or sometimes bubonic plague, especially in cases where there is a break in the skin. - This is not the typical or primary route for the spread of pneumonic plague, which is respiratory. *Incorrect: Ingestion of contaminated food* - Ingestion of contaminated food or water is a route for various **gastrointestinal infections** and diseases like salmonella or cholera. - It is not a known or common method for the transmission of any form of plague, including pneumonic plague.

Q: Which of the following statements about pathogenic mosquitoes is correct?

Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.. ***Correct: Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.*** - **Anopheles mosquitoes** are the **primary and only vectors** for **malaria**, a parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium parasites. - They transmit the parasite through their **saliva** when they bite humans, typically during **dusk and dawn**. - This is the most significant pathogenic association among the options. *Incorrect: Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs in rafts.* - **Mansonia mosquitoes** lay their eggs in **clusters attached to underwater parts of aquatic plants**, not in rafts. - **Culex mosquitoes** are the ones that lay their eggs in **raft-like formations** on water surfaces. *Incorrect: Culex mosquitoes are primarily vectors for West Nile virus.* - While **Culex mosquitoes** can transmit West Nile virus, in the **Indian context** they are primarily known as vectors for **lymphatic filariasis** (Wuchereria bancrofti) and **Japanese encephalitis**. - West Nile virus is more relevant in Western countries and is not the primary disease association for Culex in India. *Incorrect: Aedes mosquitoes are known for their distinctive black and white striped markings.* - While **Aedes aegypti** and **Aedes albopictus** do have **black and white striped markings**, this is a **morphological characteristic** rather than a primary **pathogenic association**. - The question asks about pathogenic mosquitoes, and Aedes is better characterized by its **disease transmission** (dengue, Zika, chikungunya, yellow fever) rather than its appearance. - As a pathogenic mosquito, its **daytime biting behavior** and **urban breeding habits** are more relevant than its markings.

Q: Which of the following statements about influenza infectivity is correct?

All of the options are correct.. ***All of the options are correct.*** - All statements provided accurately describe aspects of influenza infectivity and epidemiology. - The **communicable period**, the **primary source of infection**, and the potential for **subclinical cases** are all characteristic features of influenza. *Communicable period is 1 day before to 5-7 days after the onset of symptoms* - This statement is accurate, as influenza is transmissible **before symptom onset** and for several days afterward, which contributes to its rapid spread. - Peak viral shedding often occurs just before and in the first few days of symptomatic illness. - Adults typically shed virus from 1 day before to 5-7 days after symptom onset (can be longer in children and immunocompromised individuals). *The primary source of infection is a clinical case.* - This is correct, as **symptomatic individuals (clinical cases) are the PRIMARY source** of influenza virus transmission to others. - Respiratory droplets produced by coughing, sneezing, or talking from an infected person are the main mode of spread. - While subclinical cases can transmit, clinical cases with overt symptoms produce more respiratory droplets and are the major drivers of transmission. *There can be subclinical cases of influenza.* - This statement is correct; many individuals infected with influenza virus experience **mild or asymptomatic infections** (subclinical cases). - These subclinical cases can still transmit the virus, though typically to a lesser extent than symptomatic cases, further complicating control efforts.

Q: Which of the following infectious diseases has the highest proportion of asymptomatic chronic carriers?

Hepatitis B. ***Hepatitis B*** - **Hepatitis B** infection has a significant proportion of **chronic asymptomatic carriers**, particularly when infection occurs perinatally or in early childhood. - In adults, approximately **5% develop chronic infection** after acute exposure, and many of these chronic carriers remain asymptomatic while maintaining infectivity. - Chronic carriers can harbor the virus for years or decades without clinical symptoms, making them an important reservoir for transmission. - This is a major public health concern as asymptomatic carriers can unknowingly transmit the virus. *Measles* - **Measles** is highly contagious and typically presents with **symptomatic disease** in nearly all infected individuals. - Clinical features include characteristic maculopapular rash, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and Koplik's spots. - Asymptomatic infection is **extremely rare** with measles virus. *Diphtheria* - While **asymptomatic pharyngeal carriage** of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* can occur, it is not the predominant pattern. - Clinical diphtheria typically presents with pseudomembrane formation, sore throat, and potential systemic toxin effects. - Carrier rates vary but are not as epidemiologically significant as with Hepatitis B. *Rabies* - **Rabies** is almost **100% symptomatic** once the virus reaches the central nervous system. - There is **no chronic asymptomatic carrier state** in humans. - Once clinical symptoms appear (encephalitis, hydrophobia, paralysis), the disease is virtually always fatal.

Q: Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?

500 INR. ***500 INR*** - Under the **National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP)**, a **DOTS provider** receives an honorarium of **INR 500** upon the successful completion of tuberculosis treatment for a **new TB patient**. - This incentive, revised from the earlier amount of INR 250, aims to recognize the crucial role of DOTS providers in ensuring treatment adherence and successful outcomes. - The increased honorarium reflects the government's commitment to incentivizing community participation in TB elimination. *150 INR* - This amount is **significantly lower than the stipulated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under current NTEP guidelines. - The correct incentive for successful completion of treatment is INR 500 for new TB cases. *250 INR* - This was the **earlier honorarium amount** under the previous NTEP guidelines, which has since been **revised upward**. - Under the current NTEP incentive structure, the honorarium for treatment completion has been increased to INR 500. *1000 INR* - This amount is **higher than the designated honorarium** for a DOTS provider upon treatment completion under NTEP. - While this figure may apply to other incentive schemes or different milestones, the standard honorarium for new TB case completion is INR 500.

Question 1

Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?

Accepted Answer

Passive

Answer

Active

Answer

Mass

Answer

None of the options

Question 2

Drug of choice for mass therapy under filariasis control programme?

Accepted Answer

DEC

Answer

Albendazole

Answer

Ivermectin

Answer

Mebendazole

Question 3

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the strategic plan for malaria control 2012-2017?

Accepted Answer

Objective is API < 1 per 10,000

Answer

50% reduction in mortality by 2017

Answer

Complete treatment to 100% of patients

Answer

Annual incidence < 1 per 1000 by 2017

Question 4

Human, animal, fomite or objects from which infective organism enters the host is called?

Accepted Answer

Source of infection

Answer

Infective Reservoir

Answer

Infective Carrier

Answer

None of the above

Question 5

Pneumonic plague is spread by:

Accepted Answer

Droplet infection

Answer

Direct contact with infected tissue

Answer

Bite of infected flea

Answer

Ingestion of contaminated food

Question 6

Which of the following statements about universal precautions is false?

Accepted Answer

Consider that all body fluids are contaminated with blood

Answer

Includes use of hand washing

Answer

Includes use of gloves and masks

Answer

To prevent transmission of blood borne pathogens

Question 7

Which of the following statements about pathogenic mosquitoes is correct?

Accepted Answer

Anopheles mosquitoes are known for transmitting malaria.

Answer

Mansonia mosquitoes lay their eggs in rafts.

Answer

Culex mosquitoes are primarily vectors for West Nile virus.

Answer

Aedes mosquitoes are known for their distinctive black and white striped markings.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about influenza infectivity is correct?

Accepted Answer

All of the options are correct.

Answer

Communicable period is 1 day before to 5-7 days after the onset of symptoms

Answer

There can be subclinical cases of influenza.

Answer

The primary source of infection is a clinical case.

Question 9

Which of the following infectious diseases has the highest proportion of asymptomatic chronic carriers?

Accepted Answer

Hepatitis B

Answer

Measles

Answer

Rabies

Answer

Diphtheria

Question 10

Under NTEP, what is the honorarium given to a DOTS provider after the completion of treatment?

Accepted Answer

500 INR

Answer

150 INR

Answer

1000 INR

Answer

250 INR

Infectious Diseases — MCQs

Infectious Diseases — MCQs

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