The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 of India provides for certain benefits to employees. Which among the following are benefits to insured persons or to other dependents under the Act ?
1. Disablement benefit
2. Funeral expenses
3. Maternity benefit
4. Travel benefit
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q222
The cost of implementation of 'Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana' is borne by :
Q223
Consider the following statements with regard to selection of Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) under NRHM :
1. ASHA must be a woman preferably of age 18 to 25 years.
2. ASHA should be married.
3. ASHA must be a resident of the village.
4. ASHA may be a married, widowed or divorced woman. Which of the statements given above are correct with regard to process of selection of ASHA?
Q224
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) in India :
1. The CDSCO is headed by the Drugs Controller General (India) at the Centre.
2. The CDSCO is a part of the Directorate of Director General of Health Services.
3. The CDSCO is under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India.
4. The CDSCO has a network of several port offices for monitoring the import and export of drugs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Q225
The table given below shows three broad components under which the objectives of the National Health Policy, 2017 can be grouped, along with examples of goals/objectives under each component.
How many of the pairs shown in the table are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q226
As per the PC & PNDT Act, permission will be given to perform the tests for detection of which of the following?
Q227
Which one of the following is not a utilization rate ?
Q228
Which one of the following statements regarding international classification of diseases, 10th revision (ICD-10) is not correct ?
Q229
Which of the following countries was the first to institute compulsory sickness insurance?
Q230
The National Health Policy 2002 target to be achieved by the year 2010 is :
Health Policy and Management Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 of India provides for certain benefits to employees. Which among the following are benefits to insured persons or to other dependents under the Act ?
1. Disablement benefit
2. Funeral expenses
3. Maternity benefit
4. Travel benefit
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. 1, 2 and 3 only (Correct Answer)
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3 only***
- The **Employees' State Insurance Act of 1948** provides comprehensive social security benefits including **Disablement Benefit** for temporary or permanent incapacitation, **Funeral Expenses** for the deceased insured person, and **Maternity Benefit** to women.
- These benefits are designed to protect employees and their dependents against various health-related and economic contingencies.
*2 and 4 only*
- This option is incorrect because **funeral expenses** are indeed covered, but there is no specific "travel benefit" as a standard provision under the ESI Act for insured persons or their dependents.
- While medical benefits allow for treatment in ESI hospitals, a general travel benefit akin to reimbursement for personal travel is not part of the scheme.
*1, 2, 3 and 4*
- This option is incorrect because while **Disablement Benefit**, **Funeral Expenses**, and **Maternity Benefit** are provided, a general **Travel Benefit** is not one of the statutory benefits offered by the ESI Act.
- The Act focuses on medical care, income support during sickness/maternity/disablement, and dependent support, not general travel.
*1 and 3 only*
- This option is incomplete as it correctly identifies **Disablement Benefit** and **Maternity Benefit** but excludes **Funeral Expenses**, which are explicitly covered as part of the benefits package under the ESI Act.
- Funeral expenses provide financial support to the family of a deceased insured person to some extent.
Question 222: The cost of implementation of 'Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana' is borne by :
A. State Government only
B. Private institutions only as a part of their Corporate Social Responsibility
C. Both Central Government and State Government (Correct Answer)
D. Central Government only
Explanation: ***Both Central Government and State Government***
- The **Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)** is a centrally sponsored scheme, meaning its funding is shared between the **Central Government** and participating **State Governments**.
- The funding mechanism generally follows a ratio, for instance, a 60:40 split between the Centre and States, though this can vary for special category states.
*State Government only*
- If the scheme were solely funded by the state government, it would be a state scheme, not a **centrally sponsored national health protection scheme**.
- The scale and ambition of AB PM-JAY require significant central government contributions to ensure **uniform implementation** and coverage across India.
*Private institutions only as a part of their Corporate Social Responsibility*
- While private institutions may engage in healthcare initiatives through **Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)**, AB PM-JAY is a government-funded scheme.
- The primary financial responsibility for this large-scale health insurance program rests with the **government bodies**, not private entities via CSR.
*Central Government only*
- While the **Central Government** provides a substantial portion of the funding, this scheme is not fully funded by the Centre.
- State governments are required to contribute their share, underscoring the **collaborative federal structure** of its financing and implementation.
Question 223: Consider the following statements with regard to selection of Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) under NRHM :
1. ASHA must be a woman preferably of age 18 to 25 years.
2. ASHA should be married.
3. ASHA must be a resident of the village.
4. ASHA may be a married, widowed or divorced woman. Which of the statements given above are correct with regard to process of selection of ASHA?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only (Correct Answer)
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***3 and 4 only***
- An ASHA worker must be a **resident of the village** she serves to ensure local knowledge and trust, making statement 3 correct.
- The criteria specify that an ASHA may be **married, widowed, or divorced**, making statement 4 correct and reflecting inclusivity in selection.
*1 and 2 only*
- While ASHA candidates are typically women, the age criteria are usually **25 to 45 years**, not 18-25, making statement 1 incorrect.
- Being married is not a mandatory criterion; **single, widowed, or divorced women** are also eligible, making statement 2 incorrect.
*2 and 3 only*
- As explained earlier, being married (statement 2) is **not a mandatory requirement**, as eligibility extends to widowed or divorced women.
- While being a resident of the village (statement 3) is correct, statement 2 is incorrect, so this option is not entirely correct.
*1, 2, 3 and 4*
- This option includes statements 1 and 2, which are **incorrect**. Statement 1 refers to an incorrect age range, and statement 2 incorrectly states that ASHA must be married.
Question 224: Consider the following statements regarding the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) in India :
1. The CDSCO is headed by the Drugs Controller General (India) at the Centre.
2. The CDSCO is a part of the Directorate of Director General of Health Services.
3. The CDSCO is under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India.
4. The CDSCO has a network of several port offices for monitoring the import and export of drugs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 (Correct Answer)
D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: ***Correct Option: 1, 2 and 4***
The **Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)** has the following characteristics:
**Statement 1 (Correct):** The CDSCO is indeed headed by the **Drugs Controller General (India)** at the Centre. This is the apex regulatory authority for pharmaceuticals and medical devices in India.
**Statement 2 (Correct):** The CDSCO operates as a part of the **Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS)** under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
**Statement 3 (Incorrect):** The CDSCO falls under the **Ministry of Health & Family Welfare**, NOT the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is responsible for policies related to the production and pricing of chemicals and fertilizers, but drug regulation is under the health ministry.
**Statement 4 (Correct):** The CDSCO has an extensive network of **port offices** (located at major ports and airports) responsible for overseeing the **import and export of drugs**, ensuring compliance with safety and quality standards.
*Incorrect Option: 1 and 3*
- While statement 1 is correct, statement 3 is incorrect as explained above. This combination includes a false statement about the ministry under which CDSCO operates.
*Incorrect Option: 2 and 4 only*
- This option correctly identifies two true statements but **omits statement 1**, which is the fundamental fact that CDSCO is headed by the Drugs Controller General (India). This is incomplete.
*Incorrect Option: 1 and 2 only*
- This option correctly identifies the organizational structure but **fails to include statement 4** about the crucial role of CDSCO's port offices in regulating the import and export of drugs, which is a key regulatory function.
Question 225: The table given below shows three broad components under which the objectives of the National Health Policy, 2017 can be grouped, along with examples of goals/objectives under each component.
How many of the pairs shown in the table are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. Only one of the pairs (Correct Answer)
B. Only two of the pairs
C. All of the pairs
D. None of the pairs
Explanation: ***Only one of the pairs***
- According to the **National Health Policy 2017**, only **Pair 1** is correctly matched.
- Pair 1 correctly matches 'Health status and programme impact' with the objective of **increasing life expectancy at birth from 67.5 to 70 years by 2025**.
- This objective directly reflects an improvement in the overall health status of the population and is a stated goal in NHP 2017.
*Only two of the pairs*
- This option is incorrect because only one pair is accurately matched according to the National Health Policy 2017.
- While Pair 2 mentions an immunization target, the specific pairing of component and objective may not align with NHP 2017's classification.
*All of the pairs*
- This option is incorrect because not all pairs shown in the table are correctly matched with their respective broad components as per the **National Health Policy 2017**.
- Only the first pair accurately reflects the policy's stated objectives for that particular broad component.
*None of the pairs*
- This option is incorrect because **Pair 1 is correctly matched**.
- The goal to increase life expectancy from 67.5 to 70 years by 2025 is a direct indicator of improved health status and is accurately categorized under 'Health status and programme impact' in NHP 2017.
Question 226: As per the PC & PNDT Act, permission will be given to perform the tests for detection of which of the following?
A. Sex-linked genetic diseases
B. Chromosomal abnormalities
C. Haemoglobinopathies
D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***All of the above***
- The **PC & PNDT Act** (Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994) permits prenatal diagnostic procedures specifically for detection of **chromosomal abnormalities**, **genetic metabolic diseases**, **haemoglobinopathies**, **sex-linked genetic diseases**, and **congenital anomalies** when there are medical indications.
- All three conditions listed in the options (**sex-linked genetic diseases**, **chromosomal abnormalities**, and **haemoglobinopathies**) are explicitly mentioned in the Act as permissible reasons for prenatal testing.
- The key principle is that these tests must be conducted only for detection of genetic/congenital abnormalities and **not for sex determination**, which is the primary prohibition under the Act.
- Therefore, permission will be given for detection of all the conditions mentioned.
*Why each individual option alone would be incomplete*
- While each of the three conditions (**sex-linked genetic diseases**, **chromosomal abnormalities**, **haemoglobinopathies**) is individually permitted under the Act, selecting any single option would be incomplete.
- The Act permits testing for all these categories of genetic disorders, not just one specific type.
- This makes "All of the above" the most comprehensive and accurate answer.
Question 227: Which one of the following is not a utilization rate ?
A. Bed occupancy rate
B. Average length of stay
C. Bed turnover ratio
D. Population bed ratio (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Population bed ratio***
- This ratio describes the availability of beds for a given population, often used for **health planning** and **resource allocation** at a macro level.
- It is a measure of **bed availability** per capita, not how efficiently or frequently existing beds are used by patients.
*Bed occupancy rate*
- This is a **utilization rate** that indicates the percentage of available beds that are occupied over a specific period.
- A high bed occupancy rate suggests efficient use of bed resources but can also indicate **understaffing** or **overcrowding** if too high.
*Average length of stay*
- This is a **utilization rate** that measures the average number of days a patient remains in the hospital.
- It reflects the **efficiency of patient management** and discharge processes; shorter stays generally mean higher utilization per bed.
*Bed turnover ratio*
- This is a **utilization rate** that represents the number of times a bed changes occupants over a specific period.
- A higher bed turnover ratio indicates more patients are being admitted and discharged from each bed, signifying higher bed utilization.
Question 228: Which one of the following statements regarding international classification of diseases, 10th revision (ICD-10) is not correct ?
A. First character of a code is a 'letter'
B. Each chapter has three character categories
C. It has twenty one major chapters (Correct Answer)
D. It has three volumes
Explanation: ***It has twenty one major chapters***
- ICD-10 actually consists of **22 chapters**, with chapter 22 (U00-U99) being designated for codes for special purposes like provisional assignment of new diseases.
- Thus, the statement that it has twenty-one major chapters is **incorrect**.
*First character of a code is a 'letter'*
- In ICD-10, the first character of all codes is indeed a **letter**, which designates the chapter to which the code belongs.
- This letter is followed by two numeric characters, forming the basic three-character category.
*Each chapter has three character categories*
- Each ICD-10 chapter is divided into **three-character categories**, which represent broadly defined diseases or conditions.
- These categories can be further subdivided into more specific four-character or five-character codes.
*It has three volumes*
- The ICD-10 comprises **three volumes**: Volume 1 contains the main classification, Volume 2 provides instruction and guidance, and Volume 3 is the alphabetical index.
- These volumes collectively offer a comprehensive system for disease coding and classification.
Question 229: Which of the following countries was the first to institute compulsory sickness insurance?
A. France
B. Germany (Correct Answer)
C. England
D. USA
Explanation: **Germany**
* **Germany** was the first country to institute **compulsory sickness insurance** in 1883 under **Otto von Bismarck’s social insurance legislation**.
* This landmark legislation aimed to provide workers with protection against **illness and injury**, laying the groundwork for modern social welfare systems.
* *France*
* **France** introduced comprehensive social insurance much later, with major reforms in the 20th century.
* While it has a robust healthcare system, it was not the first to implement **compulsory sickness insurance**.
* *England*
* **England** (part of the UK) implemented the **National Insurance Act** in 1911, which included provisions for health insurance, but this was after Germany's legislation.
* The **National Health Service (NHS)**, a more comprehensive system, was established in 1948.
* *USA*
* The **USA** has historically relied more on private insurance and employer-sponsored health plans.
* There has never been a national **compulsory sickness insurance** system in the USA akin to those in Europe, and efforts towards universal healthcare have been met with significant political challenges.
Question 230: The National Health Policy 2002 target to be achieved by the year 2010 is :
A. Reduce infant mortality rate 30/1000 live births (Correct Answer)
B. Elimination of leprosy
C. Eradication of polio
D. Achieve zero level growth of HIV/AIDS
Explanation: ***Reduce infant mortality rate 30/1000 live births***
- The **National Health Policy 2002** specifically set the target of reducing **Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 30 per 1000 live births by the year 2010**.
- This was one of the key quantifiable goals with a clear timeline aligned with the question's timeframe.
- The policy document explicitly mentioned this as a priority target for improving maternal and child health outcomes in India.
*Eradication of polio*
- While **polio eradication** was indeed a major objective of the National Health Policy 2002, the target year was **2005, not 2010**.
- India achieved polio-free status in 2014 when WHO certified the country as polio-free.
- This makes it incorrect for the specific year 2010 mentioned in the question.
*Elimination of leprosy*
- The **elimination of leprosy** (defined as prevalence of less than 1 case per 10,000 population) was targeted for **2005, not 2010**.
- India achieved national level elimination in December 2005, though some districts continued to have higher prevalence.
- This target predates the 2010 timeline asked in the question.
*Achieve zero level growth of HIV/AIDS*
- The National Health Policy 2002 aimed to **halt and reverse the HIV/AIDS epidemic** by 2007.
- The specific phrase "zero level growth" and the year 2010 do not accurately reflect the policy's stated objectives.
- The focus was on stabilizing prevalence and preventing new infections through NACP (National AIDS Control Programme).
