Perioperative Pain Management — MCQs
Anaesthetic agent causing analgesia?
A patient after undergoing thoracotomy complains of severe pain. The BEST method of pain control in this patient would be:
All of the following can be routes of opioid administration except:
True about epidural opioid are all except:
A 50-year-old patient with renal insufficiency was recently operated on for pyelolithotomy. Which drug is the most appropriate choice for post-operative analgesia?
Primary afferent fibers secrete which nociceptive substance at the dorsal horn?
Which of the following is the FIRST-LINE antiemetic drug most commonly used for post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) prophylaxis?
A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended:
Celiac plexus block all the following is true Except
A patient delivered at home with a complete perineal tear came to the hospital after 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Perioperative Pain Management Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Anaesthetic agent causing analgesia?
- A. Thiopentone
- B. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Propofol
- D. Etomidate
Explanation: ***Ketamine*** - Ketamine provides excellent **analgesia** by acting as an **NMDA receptor antagonist**, making it unique among commonly used intravenous anesthetics [1]. - It induces a state of **dissociative anesthesia**, where the patient is conscious but detached from painful stimuli, maintaining cardiovascular stability [1]. *Thiopentone* - Thiopentone is a **barbiturate** that causes rapid **induction of anesthesia** and profound **sedation** but has no analgesic properties. - Its primary action is through potentiation of GABA-A receptor activity, leading to central nervous system depression. *Propofol* - Propofol is a widely used intravenous anesthetic known for its rapid onset and short duration of action, but it lacks significant **analgesic effects** [3]. - It primarily works by enhancing GABA-A receptor function, leading to **sedation** and hypnosis. *Etomidate* - Etomidate is an intravenous anesthetic characterized by its minimal cardiovascular depression, making it suitable for patients with **hemodynamic instability**, but it provides **no analgesia** [1], [2]. - Its anesthetic effect is mediated through GABA-A receptor potentiation, resulting in rapid loss of consciousness.
Question 2: A patient after undergoing thoracotomy complains of severe pain. The BEST method of pain control in this patient would be:
- A. Oral morphine
- B. Diazepam rectal suppository
- C. Intercostal cryoanalgesia (Correct Answer)
- D. IV fentanyl
Explanation: ***Intercostal cryoanalgesia*** - **Intercostal cryoanalgesia** involves applying extreme cold to the intercostal nerves, leading to temporary nerve denervation and prolonged pain relief. This technique is particularly effective for **post-thoracotomy pain** due to its targeted action and reduced systemic side effects compared to opioids. - The goal is to provide **long-lasting pain control** specifically at the surgical site, allowing for better respiratory mechanics and early mobilization. *Oral morphine* - Oral morphine can provide systemic pain relief, but its onset of action is slower, and it carries the risk of significant **sedation** and **respiratory depression**, which are major concerns in a patient who has just undergone thoracotomy. - While effective, it may not provide optimal local pain control for incisional pain and often requires higher doses to achieve adequate relief, increasing the risk of adverse effects. *Diazepam rectal suppository* - Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures, not for severe acute surgical pain. It has **no significant analgesic properties**. - Its sedative effects would be contraindicated after thoracotomy due to the risk of respiratory depression and masking potential neurological changes. *IV fentanyl* - IV fentanyl is a potent opioid with a rapid onset and short duration of action, making it useful for breakthrough pain or during immediate post-operative periods. However, it requires **continuous monitoring** and frequent re-dosing. - Like other opioids, it carries risks of **respiratory depression**, nausea, and sedation, making it less ideal for sustained primary pain control immediately after thoracotomy where lung function is critical.
Question 3: All of the following can be routes of opioid administration except:
- A. Intramuscular
- B. Oral
- C. Intravenous
- D. Intradermal (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intradermal*** - **Intradermal administration** involves injecting medication into the dermis, the layer between the epidermis and the subcutaneous tissue, and is typically used for **allergy testing** or **tuberculosis screening (PPD test)**, not for systemic opioid delivery. - The **slow absorption rate** and **small volume capacity** of the dermal layer make it unsuitable for achieving therapeutic opioid concentrations quickly or effectively. *Intramuscular* - **Intramuscular (IM)** injection allows for **rapid absorption** of opioids into the bloodstream from the muscle tissue. - It is a common route for administering **analgesics**, including opioids, especially in settings where oral administration is not feasible or faster onset is desired. *Oral* - **Oral (PO) administration** is a common and convenient route for many opioid formulations, allowing for **systemic absorption** through the gastrointestinal tract. - Opioids like **oxycodone**, **hydrocodone**, and **morphine** are often prescribed as oral tablets or solutions for pain management. *Intravenous* - **Intravenous (IV) administration** provides the **fastest onset of action** for opioids, as the medication is directly introduced into the bloodstream. - This route is critically important in **acute pain management**, surgical settings, and emergency situations where immediate pain relief is necessary.
Question 4: True about epidural opioid are all except:
- A. Act on dorsal horn substantia gelatinosa
- B. Can cause Itching
- C. Can cause respiratory depression
- D. Function of the intestine is not affected (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Function of the intestine is not affected** - **Epidural opioids** can indeed cause **constipation** and other gastrointestinal side effects by affecting opioid receptors in the **gut wall**, thus disturbing normal intestinal motility. - The phrase "not affected" is incorrect because **opioids inherently reduce gastrointestinal motility**, leading to common side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and constipation. *Act on dorsal horn substantia gelatinosa* - This statement is true; **epidural opioids work primarily by binding to opioid receptors** in the **substantia gelatinosa** of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. - This binding **inhibits the release of neurotransmitters** like substance P, thus preventing the transmission of pain signals. *Can cause Itching* - **Pruritus (itching)** is a very common side effect of **epidural opioids**, often concentrated around the face and trunk. - It results from the **activation of opioid receptors** in the central nervous system and the release of histamine. *Can cause respiratory depression* - **Respiratory depression** is a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of **epidural opioids**, particularly with higher doses or systemic absorption. - It occurs due to the **suppression of the medullary respiratory centers** in the brainstem.
Question 5: A 50-year-old patient with renal insufficiency was recently operated on for pyelolithotomy. Which drug is the most appropriate choice for post-operative analgesia?
- A. Diclofenac sodium
- B. Naproxen
- C. Indomethacin
- D. Acetaminophen (Correct Answer)
- E. Ketorolac
Explanation: ***Acetaminophen*** - **Acetaminophen** is primarily metabolized in the liver, with minimal renal excretion, making it a safer option for patients with **renal insufficiency**. - It provides effective **analgesia** without the adverse renal effects associated with NSAIDs. *Diclofenac sodium* - **Diclofenac** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (**NSAID**) that can impair renal function, especially in patients with pre-existing **renal insufficiency**, by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. - Its use can lead to further **kidney damage** or exacerbate existing renal impairment. *Naproxen* - **Naproxen** is an **NSAID** that carries a significant risk of causing acute kidney injury in patients with **compromised renal function**. - It reduces renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, making it unsuitable for this patient. *Indomethacin* - **Indomethacin** is a potent **NSAID** known for its adverse renal effects, including acute renal failure. - It should be avoided in patients with **renal insufficiency** due to its potential to further decline kidney function. *Ketorolac* - **Ketorolac** is a potent **NSAID** commonly used for post-operative pain but is **contraindicated** in patients with renal insufficiency. - It has significant nephrotoxic potential and can cause acute renal failure, especially in patients with pre-existing kidney disease.
Question 6: Primary afferent fibers secrete which nociceptive substance at the dorsal horn?
- A. Substance P (Correct Answer)
- B. Acetylcholine
- C. Norepinephrine
- D. Epinephrine
Explanation: ***Substance P*** - **Substance P** is a neuropeptide released by **C fibers** and **A-delta fibers** (primary afferent nociceptors) in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. - It acts as a **neurotransmitter** and **neuromodulator**, contributing to the transmission and amplification of pain signals. *Acetylcholine* - **Acetylcholine** is a primary neurotransmitter in the **neuromuscular junction** and the autonomic nervous system. - While it has some roles in the CNS, it is not the primary nociceptive substance secreted by afferent fibers in the dorsal horn. *Norepinephrine* - **Norepinephrine** (noradrenaline) is a neurotransmitter involved in the **fight-or-flight response** and mood regulation. - It can modulate pain, but it is not directly released by primary afferent fibers as a nociceptive substance in the dorsal horn. *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** (adrenaline) is a hormone and neurotransmitter primarily associated with the **sympathetic nervous system** and stress response. - It does not serve as a direct nociceptive transmitter released by primary afferent fibers in the spinal cord.
Question 7: Which of the following is the FIRST-LINE antiemetic drug most commonly used for post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) prophylaxis?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Promethazine
- D. Ondansetron (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ondansetron*** - **Ondansetron** is a **5-HT3 receptor antagonist** and is considered a first-line agent due to its high efficacy and favorable side effect profile in preventing PONV. - It works by blocking serotonin receptors in the **chemoreceptor trigger zone** and the **gastrointestinal tract**, reducing the sensation of nausea and vomiting. *Lorazepam* - **Lorazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for its **anxiolytic** and **sedative effects**, and sometimes as an adjunct for refractory nausea, but not as a first-line antiemetic for PONV prophylaxis. - While it can help indirectly by reducing anxiety, it does not directly target the key pathways involved in PONV as effectively as 5-HT3 antagonists. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** is an **anticonvulsant** medication used to prevent seizures and has no role in the direct treatment or prophylaxis of PONV. - It primarily acts on voltage-gated sodium channels in neurons and does not possess antiemetic properties. *Metoclopramide* - **Metoclopramide** is a **dopamine D2 receptor antagonist** and a **prokinetic agent** that can be used for PONV, particularly when gastric stasis is a concern. - However, it is generally considered a second-line agent due to the risk of **extrapyramidal side effects**, especially with higher doses or prolonged use. *Promethazine* - **Promethazine** is a **first-generation antihistamine** with **antidopaminergic** and **anticholinergic properties** that can be effective for nausea and vomiting. - It is often used as a rescue antiemetic or in combination therapy, but its sedative effects and potential for extrapyramidal symptoms make it less preferable as a first-line prophylactic agent compared to ondansetron.
Question 8: A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding postoperative pain relief which one of the following is recommended:
- A. Spinal narcotics intrathecal route
- B. Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage (Correct Answer)
- C. Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
- D. No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system
Explanation: ***Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage*** - **Intravenous narcotic infusion** provides continuous pain relief and allows for careful titration of the dose, which is crucial in infants due to their developing metabolism and increased sensitivity to opioids. - Lower dosages are recommended because infants have a **reduced capacity for drug metabolism** and excretion, making them more susceptible to side effects like respiratory depression. *Spinal narcotics intrathecal route* - While effective, the **intrathecal route** carries risks such as neurotoxicity and spinal cord injury, which are particularly concerning in infants due to their small size and developing neural structures. - The **pharmacokinetics** of intrathecal narcotics can also be unpredictable in infants, leading to potential for delayed respiratory depression. *Only paracetamol suppository is adequate* - For **major surgical procedures**, a single agent like **paracetamol** is typically insufficient to manage severe postoperative pain effectively. - While paracetamol is a useful adjunct, it lacks the potent analgesic effects of opioids needed for comprehensive pain control after significant surgery. *No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system* - This statement is **incorrect** and a dangerous misconception; infants, even neonates, have a **fully developed pain pathway**, perceive pain, and require appropriate analgesia. - The **pain response** in infants can be more exaggerated due to an immature inhibitory pain system, necessitating careful and effective pain management.
Question 9: Celiac plexus block all the following is true Except
- A. Cause hypotention
- B. Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery
- C. Relieved pain from gastric malignancy
- D. Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Can be given only by retrocrural (classic) approach*** - The celiac plexus block can be performed using various approaches, including **retrocrural (classic)**, **transcrural**, **anterior**, and **endoscopic ultrasound (EUS)-guided** techniques. - The choice of approach depends on patient anatomy, desired outcome, and the physician's expertise, making the statement of "only" a specific approach incorrect. *Cause hypotension* - **Hypotension** is a common side effect of celiac plexus block due to the blockade of **sympathetic innervation** to the splanchnic circulation, leading to vasodilation. - This effect is often managed with intravenous fluids and vasopressors if necessary. *Can be used to provide anesthesia for intra abdominal surgery* - Celiac plexus blocks are primarily used for **analgesia** in patients with chronic abdominal pain, particularly from **visceral malignancies**, not as the sole anesthetic for major intra-abdominal surgery. - While it can provide significant pain relief, it does not induce the level of muscle relaxation or unconsciousness required for surgical anesthesia. *Relieved pain from gastric malignancy* - The celiac plexus innervates many abdominal organs, including the stomach, pancreas, and liver, making its blockade effective in relieving **visceral pain** originating from these structures. - It is a well-established intervention for managing severe **pain associated with gastric** and pancreatic malignancies.
Question 10: A patient delivered at home with a complete perineal tear came to the hospital after 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
- A. Repair 6 weeks post-delivery
- B. Repair 3 months post-delivery (Correct Answer)
- C. Repair within 1-2 weeks post-delivery
- D. Repair 3 weeks post-delivery
Explanation: ***Repair 3 months post-delivery*** - When a patient presents at **2 weeks post-delivery** with an **unrepaired complete perineal tear** (3rd or 4th degree), the optimal management is **delayed secondary repair at 3-6 months**. - At 2 weeks, the acute repair window has passed, and immediate repair carries high risks of **infection**, **wound breakdown**, and **poor healing** due to tissue edema, friability, and ongoing inflammatory changes. - Waiting **3 months** allows complete **resolution of inflammation**, **tissue maturation**, better **vascularization**, and optimal conditions for **secondary repair** with improved functional outcomes including continence. - This is the standard recommended approach per **RCOG** and **ACOG** guidelines for delayed presentation of complete perineal tears. *Repair within 1-2 weeks post-delivery* - While this would have been ideal if the patient presented immediately, she is **already at 2 weeks** when she comes to the hospital. - Primary repair should be done within **24 hours** of delivery or as soon as possible within the first few days for best results. - Since the patient is already at 2 weeks, this option is not feasible (cannot go back in time) and attempting repair at this point would have suboptimal outcomes. *Repair 3 weeks post-delivery* - At **3 weeks**, the tissues are still in a suboptimal state with ongoing inflammatory changes, edema, and risk of infection. - This timing falls in the **"danger zone"** where repair is neither early primary repair nor properly delayed secondary repair. - Attempting repair at this stage has higher rates of **dehiscence** and **poor functional outcomes** compared to waiting for full tissue healing. *Repair 6 weeks post-delivery* - While **6 weeks** is better than 3 weeks, it is still **too early** for optimal secondary repair of a complete perineal tear. - Tissues have not fully matured, and residual inflammation may persist, compromising surgical outcomes. - Standard practice recommends waiting **at least 3 months** (preferably 3-6 months) for best results in delayed secondary repair.
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