Post-Discharge Analgesia — MCQs

10 questions

A patient after undergoing thoracotomy complains of severe pain. The BEST method of pain control in this patient would be:

All of the following can be routes of opioid administration except:

Which block is described as regional anesthesia of the arm:-

A 50-year-old patient with renal insufficiency was recently operated on for pyelolithotomy. Which drug is the most appropriate choice for post-operative analgesia?

Patients who need surgery within 24 hours are categorized under which color category in a disaster management triage?

During the discharge of a COVID patient treated with steroids and remdesivir, which of the following will you inform him about? 1. Repeat RT-PCR after 7 days of discharge 2. Watch for the persistence of Anosmia 3. Watch for headache and nasal discharge 4. Monitor glucose levels 5. Watch for Sinusitis symptoms

Which of the following is the FIRST-LINE antiemetic drug most commonly used for post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) prophylaxis?

Which of the following anesthetic agents have good analgesic property? a) Ketamine b) Nitrous oxide c) Thiopentone d) Propofol e) Midazolam

Which of the following anaesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect? A) N2O B) Thiopentone C) Methohexitone D) Ketamine E) Fentanyl

Q10

Which intravenous anaesthetic agent has analgesic effect also

Post-Discharge Analgesia Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A patient after undergoing thoracotomy complains of severe pain. The BEST method of pain control in this patient would be:

A. Oral morphine
B. Diazepam rectal suppository
C. Intercostal cryoanalgesia (Correct Answer)
D. IV fentanyl

Explanation: ***Intercostal cryoanalgesia*** - **Intercostal cryoanalgesia** involves applying extreme cold to the intercostal nerves, leading to temporary nerve denervation and prolonged pain relief. This technique is particularly effective for **post-thoracotomy pain** due to its targeted action and reduced systemic side effects compared to opioids. - The goal is to provide **long-lasting pain control** specifically at the surgical site, allowing for better respiratory mechanics and early mobilization. *Oral morphine* - Oral morphine can provide systemic pain relief, but its onset of action is slower, and it carries the risk of significant **sedation** and **respiratory depression**, which are major concerns in a patient who has just undergone thoracotomy. - While effective, it may not provide optimal local pain control for incisional pain and often requires higher doses to achieve adequate relief, increasing the risk of adverse effects. *Diazepam rectal suppository* - Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures, not for severe acute surgical pain. It has **no significant analgesic properties**. - Its sedative effects would be contraindicated after thoracotomy due to the risk of respiratory depression and masking potential neurological changes. *IV fentanyl* - IV fentanyl is a potent opioid with a rapid onset and short duration of action, making it useful for breakthrough pain or during immediate post-operative periods. However, it requires **continuous monitoring** and frequent re-dosing. - Like other opioids, it carries risks of **respiratory depression**, nausea, and sedation, making it less ideal for sustained primary pain control immediately after thoracotomy where lung function is critical.

Question 2: All of the following can be routes of opioid administration except:

A. Intramuscular
B. Oral
C. Intravenous
D. Intradermal (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Intradermal*** - **Intradermal administration** involves injecting medication into the dermis, the layer between the epidermis and the subcutaneous tissue, and is typically used for **allergy testing** or **tuberculosis screening (PPD test)**, not for systemic opioid delivery. - The **slow absorption rate** and **small volume capacity** of the dermal layer make it unsuitable for achieving therapeutic opioid concentrations quickly or effectively. *Intramuscular* - **Intramuscular (IM)** injection allows for **rapid absorption** of opioids into the bloodstream from the muscle tissue. - It is a common route for administering **analgesics**, including opioids, especially in settings where oral administration is not feasible or faster onset is desired. *Oral* - **Oral (PO) administration** is a common and convenient route for many opioid formulations, allowing for **systemic absorption** through the gastrointestinal tract. - Opioids like **oxycodone**, **hydrocodone**, and **morphine** are often prescribed as oral tablets or solutions for pain management. *Intravenous* - **Intravenous (IV) administration** provides the **fastest onset of action** for opioids, as the medication is directly introduced into the bloodstream. - This route is critically important in **acute pain management**, surgical settings, and emergency situations where immediate pain relief is necessary.

Question 3: Which block is described as regional anesthesia of the arm:-

A. Interscalene block
B. Infraclavicular block
C. Axillary block
D. Supraclavicular brachial plexus block (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Supraclavicular brachial plexus block*** - The **supraclavicular block** targets the **trunks of the brachial plexus** as they exit the scalene muscles, providing comprehensive anesthesia to the entire upper limb, including the shoulder, arm, forearm, and hand. - This block is particularly effective for procedures involving the arm due to its proximal location within the brachial plexus, covering multiple nerve distributions. *Interscalene block* - An **interscalene block** primarily targets the **roots or trunks of the brachial plexus** and is typically used for shoulder and upper arm surgery, but may spare the ulnar nerve. - While it anesthetizes the arm, it is primarily chosen for more proximal procedures and may not provide complete distal arm anesthesia compared to the supraclavicular approach. *Infraclavicular block* - An **infraclavicular block** targets the **cords of the brachial plexus** and is suitable for procedures involving the elbow, forearm, and hand, providing good coverage for these areas. - While it does anesthetize the distal arm, it is more distal than the supraclavicular block and may not provide full coverage for the entire upper arm and shoulder. *Axillary block* - An **axillary block** targets the **terminal branches of the brachial plexus** in the axilla, mainly anesthetizing the forearm and hand. - This block is often used for procedures distal to the elbow and provides less comprehensive coverage for the entire upper arm and shoulder compared to more proximal blocks.

Question 4: A 50-year-old patient with renal insufficiency was recently operated on for pyelolithotomy. Which drug is the most appropriate choice for post-operative analgesia?

A. Diclofenac sodium
B. Naproxen
C. Indomethacin
D. Acetaminophen (Correct Answer)
E. Ketorolac

Explanation: ***Acetaminophen*** - **Acetaminophen** is primarily metabolized in the liver, with minimal renal excretion, making it a safer option for patients with **renal insufficiency**. - It provides effective **analgesia** without the adverse renal effects associated with NSAIDs. *Diclofenac sodium* - **Diclofenac** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (**NSAID**) that can impair renal function, especially in patients with pre-existing **renal insufficiency**, by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. - Its use can lead to further **kidney damage** or exacerbate existing renal impairment. *Naproxen* - **Naproxen** is an **NSAID** that carries a significant risk of causing acute kidney injury in patients with **compromised renal function**. - It reduces renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, making it unsuitable for this patient. *Indomethacin* - **Indomethacin** is a potent **NSAID** known for its adverse renal effects, including acute renal failure. - It should be avoided in patients with **renal insufficiency** due to its potential to further decline kidney function. *Ketorolac* - **Ketorolac** is a potent **NSAID** commonly used for post-operative pain but is **contraindicated** in patients with renal insufficiency. - It has significant nephrotoxic potential and can cause acute renal failure, especially in patients with pre-existing kidney disease.

Question 5: Patients who need surgery within 24 hours are categorized under which color category in a disaster management triage?

A. Green
B. Yellow (Correct Answer)
C. Blue
D. Black

Explanation: ***Yellow*** - Patients in the **yellow category** are those who require **significant medical attention** and intervention, such as surgery, but whose condition is stable enough to withstand a delay of a few hours up to 24 hours without immediate threat to life or limb. - This category indicates a **delayed but urgent need** for treatment, distinguishing them from immediate (red) or minor (green) cases. *Blue* - The color **blue** is generally **not a standard triage category** in most commonly used disaster protocols (e.g., START, JumpSTART). - Triage systems typically use red, yellow, green, and black to prioritize patients based on immediate medical need and prognosis. *Green* - The **green category** is for patients with **minor injuries** who are considered "walking wounded" and can often wait for treatment for several hours, sometimes up to a few days. - These individuals are **stable** and do not require immediate intervention to preserve life or limb. *Black* - The **black category** is reserved for individuals who are **deceased** or have injuries so severe that survival is unlikely given the available resources, often implying **palliative care** rather than active life-saving interventions in a mass casualty event. - This category signifies that resources would be better allocated to patients with a higher chance of survival.

Question 6: During the discharge of a COVID patient treated with steroids and remdesivir, which of the following will you inform him about? 1. Repeat RT-PCR after 7 days of discharge 2. Watch for the persistence of Anosmia 3. Watch for headache and nasal discharge 4. Monitor glucose levels 5. Watch for Sinusitis symptoms

A. 1,3 and 4
B. 3,4 and 5 (Correct Answer)
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2,3,4 and 5

Explanation: **3, 4, and 5** - For patients treated with **steroids**, it is crucial to monitor **glucose levels** due to the potential for steroid-induced hyperglycemia [1]. - Symptoms like **headache** and **nasal discharge** (and by extension **sinusitis symptoms**) could indicate conditions like **mucormycosis**, a serious fungal infection seen in immunocompromised COVID-19 patients, especially those having received steroids. *1, 3, and 4* - A **repeat RT-PCR after 7 days** of discharge is generally not recommended as per current guidelines, as viral shedding can persist without infectivity. - While monitoring for headache, nasal discharge, and glucose levels is appropriate, omitting the direct vigilance for **sinusitis symptoms** is less comprehensive. *2, 3, and 4* - While **anosmia** (loss of smell) can persist post-COVID, it is primarily a lingering symptom of the infection itself and typically resolves spontaneously, not usually requiring specific discharge instructions for monitoring its persistence to prevent complications. - The focus should be on new or worsening symptoms that might indicate post-COVID complications or secondary infections. *1, 2, 3, 4, and 5* - Including **repeat RT-PCR** and solely "watch for the persistence of Anosmia" without emphasizing resolution or specific actions makes this option less pertinent for discharge advice. - The priority for discharge instructions should be preventable complications and warning signs of serious conditions.

Question 7: Which of the following is the FIRST-LINE antiemetic drug most commonly used for post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) prophylaxis?

A. Lorazepam
B. Metoclopramide
C. Promethazine
D. Ondansetron (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Ondansetron*** - **Ondansetron** is a **5-HT3 receptor antagonist** and is considered a first-line agent due to its high efficacy and favorable side effect profile in preventing PONV. - It works by blocking serotonin receptors in the **chemoreceptor trigger zone** and the **gastrointestinal tract**, reducing the sensation of nausea and vomiting. *Lorazepam* - **Lorazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for its **anxiolytic** and **sedative effects**, and sometimes as an adjunct for refractory nausea, but not as a first-line antiemetic for PONV prophylaxis. - While it can help indirectly by reducing anxiety, it does not directly target the key pathways involved in PONV as effectively as 5-HT3 antagonists. *Phenytoin* - **Phenytoin** is an **anticonvulsant** medication used to prevent seizures and has no role in the direct treatment or prophylaxis of PONV. - It primarily acts on voltage-gated sodium channels in neurons and does not possess antiemetic properties. *Metoclopramide* - **Metoclopramide** is a **dopamine D2 receptor antagonist** and a **prokinetic agent** that can be used for PONV, particularly when gastric stasis is a concern. - However, it is generally considered a second-line agent due to the risk of **extrapyramidal side effects**, especially with higher doses or prolonged use. *Promethazine* - **Promethazine** is a **first-generation antihistamine** with **antidopaminergic** and **anticholinergic properties** that can be effective for nausea and vomiting. - It is often used as a rescue antiemetic or in combination therapy, but its sedative effects and potential for extrapyramidal symptoms make it less preferable as a first-line prophylactic agent compared to ondansetron.

Question 8: Which of the following anesthetic agents have good analgesic property? a) Ketamine b) Nitrous oxide c) Thiopentone d) Propofol e) Midazolam

A. Ketamine and Nitrous oxide (Correct Answer)
B. Ketamine only
C. Nitrous oxide and Thiopentone
D. Ketamine and Propofol
E. Midazolam only

Explanation: ***Ketamine and Nitrous oxide*** - **Ketamine** is a dissociative anesthetic with potent **analgesic properties** secondary to its action as an **NMDA receptor antagonist**. - **Nitrous oxide** is an inhalational anesthetic known for its mild to moderate **analgesic effects**, making it useful for sedation and pain relief. *Ketamine only* - While **ketamine** has excellent analgesic properties, this option is incomplete as **nitrous oxide** also contributes significant analgesia among the choices. - Excluding other agents with analgesic properties makes this option less comprehensive than the correct answer. *Ketamine and Propofol* - **Ketamine** possesses strong analgesic effects, but **propofol** is a sedative-hypnotic agent with no significant intrinsic **analgesic properties**. - Propofol provides anesthesia and sedation but typically requires co-administration with opioids for pain control. *Nitrous oxide and Thiopentone* - **Nitrous oxide** provides analgesia, but **thiopentone** (a barbiturate) is primarily an anesthetic and sedative with **no significant analgesic properties**. - Thiopentone can induce unconsciousness rapidly but does not relieve pain. *Midazolam only* - **Midazolam** is a benzodiazepine primarily used for sedation, anxiolysis, and amnesia, with **no intrinsic analgesic properties**. - Its effects can reduce stress and perception of pain, but it does not directly act as an analgesic.

Question 9: Which of the following anaesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect? A) N2O B) Thiopentone C) Methohexitone D) Ketamine E) Fentanyl

A. N2O
B. Methohexitone
C. Ketamine
D. Fentanyl
E. Thiopentone (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Thiopentone*** - Thiopentone is a **barbiturate** anesthetic primarily used for inducing anesthesia. - It provides significant **hypnosis** and sedation but lacks intrinsic **analgesic properties**, meaning it does not relieve pain. *N2O* - **Nitrous oxide** (N2O) is an inhalation anesthetic that provides good **analgesia** at sub-anesthetic concentrations. - It is often used as an adjunct to other anesthetic agents to enhance pain relief during procedures. *Methohexitone* - Methohexitone is another **barbiturate** similar to thiopentone, used for induction of anesthesia. - While it provides rapid **hypnosis**, it also lacks significant **analgesic effects**. *Ketamine* - Ketamine is a **dissociative anesthetic** known for its potent **analgesic properties**. - It works by blocking **NMDA receptors**, providing pain relief even at sub-anesthetic doses. *Fentanyl* - Fentanyl is a powerful **opioid analgesic** that is commonly used in anesthesia for its strong pain-relieving effects. - It acts on **opioid receptors** in the central nervous system to reduce pain perception.

Question 10: Which intravenous anaesthetic agent has analgesic effect also

A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate

Explanation: ***Ketamine*** - Ketamine acts as an **N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist**, providing significant **analgesia** in addition to its anaesthetic effects. - It induces a state of **dissociative anaesthesia**, where the patient appears awake but is unresponsive to pain, making it unique among intravenous anaesthetics. *Thiopentone* - Thiopentone is a **barbiturate** that acts as a potent hypnotic and anaesthetic but provides no significant analgesic properties. - It can even cause **anti-analgesia** (hyperalgesia) at sub-hypnotic doses, increasing sensitivity to pain. *Propofol* - Propofol is a potent intravenous anaesthetic that works primarily as a **GABA-A receptor agonist**, but it lacks intrinsic analgesic properties. - While it can cause some sedation and reduced pain perception due to CNS depression, it does not directly modulate pain pathways in the way an analgesic would. *Etomidate* - Etomidate is a hypnotic agent highly valued for its **cardiovascular stability**, making it suitable for patients with compromised cardiac function. - Like propofol and thiopentone, etomidate primarily acts on **GABA-A receptors** to induce unconsciousness and offers no significant analgesic effects.

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