Which of the following are trigger factors for seizures?
I. Sleep deprivation
II. Missed doses of antiepileptic drugs
III. Recreational drug misuse
IV. Physical exhaustion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q2
Which of the following are clinical features of Fronto-Temporal dementia ?
I. Personality change
II. Language disturbance
III. Memory may be preserved in early stages
IV. Anti-cholinesterases are the drug of choice for treatment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q3
The 4AT is a screening tool for detection of delirium. Which THREE of the following parameters listed below are included in the 4AT tool?
I. Alertness
II. Apnoea
III. Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT4)
IV. Attention
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q4
Specific genetic conditions account for a proportion of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) cases. Which of the following are known to be associated with ASD ?
I. Tuberous sclerosis
II. Fragile X syndrome
III. Prader-Willi syndrome
IV. Patau syndrome
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Q5
Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum psychosis?
Q6
Which among the following are defence mechanisms adopted when an individual is faced with problems or failures?
I. Rationalization
II. Regression
III. Projection
IV. Replacement
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Psychiatry UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following are trigger factors for seizures?
I. Sleep deprivation
II. Missed doses of antiepileptic drugs
III. Recreational drug misuse
IV. Physical exhaustion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. II and III only
B. I and IV only
C. I, II, III and IV (Correct Answer)
D. I, II and III only
Explanation: ***I, II, III and IV***
- **Sleep deprivation** significantly lowers the **seizure threshold** by altering brain excitability and neurochemical balance.
- **Missed doses of antiepileptic drugs** lead to subtherapeutic drug levels, increasing the likelihood of breakthrough seizures in individuals undergoing treatment.
- **Recreational drug misuse** (e.g., cocaine, amphetamines, alcohol withdrawal) can directly cause seizures by neurotoxic effects or by unmasking an underlying seizure disorder.
- **Physical exhaustion** can act as a stressor, disrupting brain homeostasis and making individuals more susceptible to seizures, similar to sleep deprivation.
*II and III only*
- This option is incomplete as **sleep deprivation** and **physical exhaustion** are also well-established seizure triggers.
*I and IV only*
- This option is incomplete because **missed doses of antiepileptic drugs** and **recreational drug misuse** are critical and common triggers for seizures.
*I, II and III only*
- This option overlooks **physical exhaustion**, which can, similar to sleep deprivation, significantly reduce the seizure threshold.
Question 2: Which of the following are clinical features of Fronto-Temporal dementia ?
I. Personality change
II. Language disturbance
III. Memory may be preserved in early stages
IV. Anti-cholinesterases are the drug of choice for treatment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. I, II and III (Correct Answer)
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II and IV
Explanation: ***Correct Answer: I, II and III***
- **Fronto-temporal dementia (FTD)** is characterized by prominent **personality and behavioral changes** (disinhibition, apathy, loss of empathy) and **language disturbances** (progressive non-fluent aphasia or semantic variant aphasia).
- Unlike Alzheimer's disease, **memory is often relatively preserved in the early stages** of FTD, with executive function, behavior, and social cognition being more affected initially.
- **Statement IV is incorrect**: Anti-cholinesterases (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) are the treatment for Alzheimer's disease and are **generally ineffective or may even worsen behavioral symptoms in FTD**. There is no FDA-approved pharmacological treatment specifically for FTD; management focuses on behavioral interventions and symptomatic treatment.
*Incorrect: II, III and IV*
- This option incorrectly includes **Statement IV (anti-cholinesterases)** as a clinical feature or appropriate treatment.
- Anti-cholinesterases are not the drug of choice for FTD and may exacerbate behavioral symptoms.
*Incorrect: I, III and IV*
- This option incorrectly includes **Statement IV (anti-cholinesterases)** while missing the important language disturbance feature.
- Language disturbances are a core feature of FTD, particularly in the language-variant subtypes.
*Incorrect: I, II and IV*
- This option incorrectly includes **Statement IV (anti-cholinesterases)** while missing the fact that memory preservation in early stages is characteristic.
- The preservation of memory early on is a key distinguishing feature between FTD and Alzheimer's disease.
Question 3: The 4AT is a screening tool for detection of delirium. Which THREE of the following parameters listed below are included in the 4AT tool?
I. Alertness
II. Apnoea
III. Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT4)
IV. Attention
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. I, III and IV (Correct Answer)
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
Explanation: ***I, III and IV***
- The 4AT screening tool specifically includes **Alertness**, **AMT4 (Abbreviated Mental Test)**, and **Attention** as key parameters for detecting delirium.
- The **AMT4** component assesses **cognitive function**, while **Alertness** and **Attention** evaluate the patient's state of consciousness and focus.
*I, II and IV*
- This option incorrectly includes **Apnoea**. While apnoea is a significant medical condition, it is not a direct parameter in the **4AT delirium screening tool**.
- The 4AT focuses on cognitive and neurological signs of delirium, not respiratory patterns.
*I, II and III*
- This option also incorrectly includes **Apnoea** as one of the parameters in the 4AT tool.
- The 4AT is designed to assess **delirium**, which primarily manifests through altered mental status, rather than respiratory issues.
*II, III and IV*
- This option is incorrect as it includes **Apnoea** and omits **Alertness**, which is a fundamental component of the **4AT delirium screening tool**.
- **Alertness** is crucial for evaluating the patient's level of consciousness, a primary sign of delirium.
Question 4: Specific genetic conditions account for a proportion of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) cases. Which of the following are known to be associated with ASD ?
I. Tuberous sclerosis
II. Fragile X syndrome
III. Prader-Willi syndrome
IV. Patau syndrome
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II (Correct Answer)
D. I and IV
Explanation: ***I and II***
- Both **Tuberous sclerosis** and **Fragile X syndrome** are well-established genetic conditions with a strong association with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD).
- Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC) is a genetic disorder that causes **benign tumors** to grow in the brain and other organs, and approximately **40-50% of individuals with TSC also have ASD**. Fragile X syndrome is the **most common inherited cause of intellectual disability** and a leading known **single-gene cause of ASD**, with about **25-50% of affected males** meeting the diagnostic criteria for ASD.
*I and III*
- While Tuberous sclerosis is strongly associated with ASD, **Prader-Willi syndrome** has a less consistent and well-defined relationship with ASD despite some overlapping behavioral features.
- Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by **hyperphagia (insatiable appetite)**, intellectual disability, and behavioral problems, but the autistic-like features may represent a behavioral phenocopy rather than true ASD.
*II and III*
- **Fragile X syndrome** is strongly associated with ASD, but **Prader-Willi syndrome** is not considered a primary or well-established genetic cause of ASD.
- While intellectual disability and behavioral difficulties can be present in both, their underlying genetic mechanisms and core features differ significantly regarding ASD classification.
*I and IV*
- **Tuberous sclerosis** is clearly linked to ASD, but **Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13)** is not associated with ASD.
- Patau syndrome is a severe chromosomal disorder characterized by **multiple congenital abnormalities** and **profound developmental delays**, often leading to early mortality. The severe nature of the condition and high infant mortality rate preclude typical ASD presentation.
Question 5: Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum psychosis?
A. Electro convulsive therapy is the first treatment of choice.
B. Recurrence rate in subsequent pregnancy is 60-70 %. (Correct Answer)
C. There is often no family history of psychosis.
D. Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery.
Explanation: ***Recurrence rate in subsequent pregnancy is 60-70%.***
- Postpartum psychosis carries a **high recurrence risk**, making subsequent pregnancies a concern for women with a history of the condition.
- This high recurrence rate (ranging from 50-80% across studies) underscores the importance of close monitoring and prophylactic treatment in future pregnancies.
*Electro convulsive therapy is the first treatment of choice.*
- **ECT** is considered for severe cases of postpartum psychosis, particularly when there is rapid deterioration, severe suicidality, or catatonia, rather than being the first-line treatment.
- Initial management typically involves a combination of **antipsychotics and mood stabilizers**, often in an inpatient setting for safety.
*There is often no family history of psychosis.*
- A **family history of psychosis**, especially bipolar disorder or schizophrenia, is a **significant risk factor** for postpartum psychosis.
- Genetic predisposition plays a substantial role, making this statement incorrect—family history is commonly present.
*Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery.*
- While postpartum psychosis has a **rapid onset**, stating "usually within 4 days" is too restrictive.
- The condition typically manifests within the **first 2-4 weeks after delivery**, with approximately **50% of cases occurring within the first week** and peak incidence in the first 2 weeks.
- This makes the 4-day timeframe an underestimate of the typical onset window.
Question 6: Which among the following are defence mechanisms adopted when an individual is faced with problems or failures?
I. Rationalization
II. Regression
III. Projection
IV. Replacement
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III (Correct Answer)
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
Explanation: ***I, II and III***
- **Rationalization**, **Regression**, and **Projection** are all classic defense mechanisms described in psychoanalytic theory.
- These mechanisms are unconscious strategies used by the **ego** to reduce anxiety and protect the self from unacceptable thoughts or feelings, particularly when an individual faces problems or failures.
*I, III and IV*
- This option correctly identifies Rationalization and Projection, but incorrectly includes **Replacement**.
- While "replacement" might refer to a form of **displacement** in some contexts, it is not a standard, recognized defense mechanism in the classic psychoanalytic framework.
*I, II and IV*
- This option correctly identifies Rationalization and Regression, but incorrectly includes **Replacement**.
- **Replacement** is not a standard defense mechanism; instead, individuals might experience **displacement** where feelings are redirected to a safer target.
*II, III and IV*
- This option includes Regression and Projection, but misses **Rationalization** while incorrectly including **Replacement**.
- **Rationalization** is a very common defense mechanism involving creating logical but false justifications for actions or beliefs.