Community Medicine
7 questionsAs an index of thermal comfort, the 'Corrected Effective Temperature' is considered to be an improvement over 'Effective Temperature'. It deals with which of the following factors? I. Air velocity II. Humidity III. Mean radiant heat IV. Sweat rate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme?
A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever 'receptive' area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?
Under the Employees' State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit?
A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?
Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) : I. Early detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of HBNC. II. ANM is the main person involved in the delivery of HBNC. III. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the key objectives of HBNC. IV. The primary aim of HBNC is to improve newborn survival. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation provide the STI/RTI services?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: As an index of thermal comfort, the 'Corrected Effective Temperature' is considered to be an improvement over 'Effective Temperature'. It deals with which of the following factors? I. Air velocity II. Humidity III. Mean radiant heat IV. Sweat rate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, III and IV
- B. I, II and III (Correct Answer)
- C. II, III and IV
- D. I and II only
Explanation: ***I, II and III*** - The **"Corrected Effective Temperature"** (CET) improves upon the standard Effective Temperature (ET) by incorporating the **mean radiant heat (radiant temperature)**, along with **air temperature**, **humidity**, and **air velocity**. - Unlike **Effective Temperature** which considered air temperature, humidity, and air velocity, CET acknowledges the significant impact of **radiant heat** from surrounding surfaces on human thermal comfort, making it a more comprehensive index. - The key improvement: CET = ET + Mean Radiant Heat consideration. *I, III and IV* - While **air velocity** and **mean radiant heat** are indeed considered in CET, **sweat rate** is not a direct input parameter for calculating CET. - **Sweat rate** is a physiological response to thermal stress, not an environmental factor measured by thermal comfort indices. - CET aims to provide an objective index of thermal sensation based on environmental parameters, rather than individual physiological responses. *II, III and IV* - This option correctly identifies **humidity** and **mean radiant heat** as factors, but incorrectly includes **sweat rate** as a direct component of CET calculation. - **Air velocity** (I) is a crucial factor in both ET and CET, and its exclusion makes this option incomplete and incorrect. *I and II only* - This option is incomplete as it omits **mean radiant heat (III)**, which is the defining improvement that distinguishes CET from ET. - While **air velocity (I)** and **humidity (II)** are indeed part of CET, without including the radiant heat component, this would essentially describe only part of the Effective Temperature index, not the Corrected version.
Question 202: In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme?
- A. DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age (Correct Answer)
- B. DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age
- C. DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age
- D. DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age
Explanation: ***DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age*** - Under the **Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)**, this represents the accepted upper age limit for catch-up vaccination in children who have not received any previous doses - **DPT vaccine** (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus) can be given up to **7 years of age** for primary immunization series - **OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)** can be administered up to **5 years of age** for catch-up immunization - Beyond these ages, alternative formulations are typically used (Td vaccine for older children instead of DPT) *DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age* - These age limits **exceed the standard UIP guidelines** for catch-up vaccination - Not the recommended upper age limits for primary immunization series - Would be beyond the typical age range for initiating these vaccines in unimmunized children *DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age* - These age cut-offs are **significantly higher than UIP recommendations** - For children beyond standard ages, **Td (Tetanus-diphtheria)** vaccine is preferred over DPT - These limits do not align with catch-up vaccination protocols under UIP *DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age* - While closer to the correct limits, these ages still **exceed the standard recommendations** - The accepted upper limits are **7 years for DPT** and **5 years for OPV** under UIP guidelines - Not the officially recognized age cut-offs for catch-up immunization
Question 203: A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever 'receptive' area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?
- A. 7 days
- B. 8 days
- C. 10 days
- D. 6 days (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Option: 6 days*** - International Health Regulations (IHR) specify that a traveler without a valid yellow fever vaccination certificate arriving from an endemic area into a receptive area must be placed in **quarantine for 6 days** from the date of leaving the infected territory. - This quarantine period corresponds to the **maximum incubation period of yellow fever (3-6 days)**, ensuring that if the traveler was infected just before departure, any clinical manifestations would appear before release from quarantine. - This prevents potential transmission by **Aedes aegypti mosquitoes** in the receptive area during the viremic phase. *Incorrect Option: 7 days* - While 7 days is a common quarantine period for some diseases, it is **one day longer** than the internationally stipulated period for yellow fever under IHR. - Quarantining for an excessive period is unnecessary and places an **undue burden** on the traveler. *Incorrect Option: 8 days* - This period is **longer than the maximum incubation period** for yellow fever and is not the recommended duration under IHR. - It would lead to an extended and **unjustified restriction** of the traveler's movement. *Incorrect Option: 10 days* - 10 days is a significantly **longer period** than scientifically necessary for yellow fever quarantine, based on its known incubation period. - Such an extended quarantine would be **disproportionate** to the actual risk and violates IHR guidelines.
Question 204: Under the Employees' State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit?
- A. 61 days
- B. 121 days
- C. 30 days
- D. 91 days (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***91 days*** - Under the **Employees' State Insurance Act 1948**, the maximum period for which **sickness cash benefit** is payable is **91 days** in a continuous period of 365 days. - This benefit is provided to **insured persons** when their sickness is duly certified by an **Insurance Medical Officer**. *61 days* - This period is **incorrect** as the Act specifies a longer maximum period for sickness benefit. - The figure of 61 days does not align with the provisions for ordinary sickness benefit under ESIC. *121 days* - This period is **incorrect** and exceeds the standard maximum duration for ordinary sickness benefit. - While there are extended benefits for certain chronic diseases, the general sickness benefit is not 121 days. *30 days* - This period is **incorrect** and significantly shorter than the actual maximum period stipulated by the ESIC Act. - A 30-day period would not adequately cover most common sickness episodes that qualify for this benefit.
Question 205: A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?
- A. Propagative transmission
- B. Cyclo-propagative transmission
- C. Mechanical transmission (Correct Answer)
- D. Cyclo-developmental transmission
Explanation: ***Mechanical transmission (Correct Answer)*** - Houseflies are **classic mechanical vectors** that transmit pathogens through physical transfer. - They pick up pathogens on their **legs, proboscis, or body hairs** from contaminated sources (feces, garbage) and physically transport them to food or other surfaces. - This method involves **no biological multiplication or development** of the pathogen within the fly. - Common diseases transmitted: **Typhoid, cholera, dysentery, diarrheal diseases, trachoma**. *Propagative transmission (Incorrect)* - This involves the **multiplication** of the pathogen within the vector, but no developmental changes. - Houseflies do **not** support pathogen multiplication in their bodies. - Example of this type: Mosquitoes transmitting **arboviruses** like dengue or Zika. *Cyclo-propagative transmission (Incorrect)* - The pathogen undergoes both **multiplication and developmental changes** within the vector. - Houseflies are **not biological vectors** and cannot support this process. - Classic example: **Malarial parasite** (Plasmodium) in Anopheles mosquitoes. *Cyclo-developmental transmission (Incorrect)* - The pathogen undergoes **developmental changes** within the vector but does not multiply. - Houseflies do **not** serve as intermediate hosts for pathogen development. - Example: **Filarial worms** in mosquitoes developing into infective larvae.
Question 206: Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) : I. Early detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of HBNC. II. ANM is the main person involved in the delivery of HBNC. III. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the key objectives of HBNC. IV. The primary aim of HBNC is to improve newborn survival. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. I, III and IV only (Correct Answer)
- B. I and II only
- C. I, II, III and IV
- D. II and III only
Explanation: ***I, III and IV only*** - **Statement I is CORRECT**: Early detection and special care of **pre-term and low birth weight newborns** is a major objective of HBNC, as preterm birth is a significant risk factor for neonatal morbidity and mortality. - **Statement III is CORRECT**: Supporting families in adopting **healthy practices** like optimal breastfeeding, cord care, thermal regulation, and recognition of danger signs is fundamental to achieving HBNC objectives. - **Statement IV is CORRECT**: The **primary aim of HBNC** is to **improve newborn survival** and reduce neonatal mortality by ensuring essential healthcare services reach every newborn through home visits. - **Statement II is INCORRECT**: **ASHA workers** are the main persons involved in delivering HBNC through home visits (minimum 6 visits for institutional deliveries, more for home deliveries). ANMs provide **supervisory support** but are NOT the primary service deliverers. *I and II only* - Incorrect because statement II is false - **ASHA workers**, not ANMs, are the primary HBNC service providers. *I, II, III and IV* - Incorrect because statement II is false - ANMs supervise HBNC but **ASHA workers** conduct the actual home visits and deliver care. *II and III only* - Incorrect because statement II is false, and statements I and IV (which are correct) are excluded from this option.
Question 207: Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation provide the STI/RTI services?
- A. Chhaya Clinic
- B. Antara Clinic
- C. Sathi Clinic
- D. Suraksha Clinic (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Suraksha Clinic*** - The National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) provides its **STI/RTI services** under the brand name **Suraksha Clinic**. - These clinics offer confidential testing, treatment, and counseling for sexually transmitted infections and reproductive tract infections, aiming to control their spread. *Chhaya Clinic* - This is not the recognized brand name under which NACO provides STI/RTI services. - **NACO's initiatives** are specifically branded to ensure consistency and public recognition of their health programs. *Antara Clinic* - This is not the correct brand name for NACO's STI/RTI services. - The names of public health initiatives are often chosen to reflect their purpose and are standardized by the implementing organization. *Sathi Clinic* - This is not the designated name for NACO's STI/RTI services. - **Brand recognition** is crucial for public health programs to ensure that individuals seeking specific services can easily identify the correct facilities.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsConsider the following statements regarding Wernicke's encephalopathy : I. It is caused by niacin deficiency. II. It is often seen in alcoholics. III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features. IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast. Which of the statements given above are correct?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke's encephalopathy : I. It is caused by niacin deficiency. II. It is often seen in alcoholics. III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features. IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast. Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A. II, III and IV (Correct Answer)
- B. I, III and IV
- C. I, II and III
- D. I, II and IV
Explanation: ***II, III and IV*** - Wernicke's encephalopathy is primarily caused by **thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency**, not niacin [1]. It is indeed often seen in **alcoholics** due to poor nutrition and impaired thiamine absorption [1], [3]. - The classic triad of Wernicke's encephalopathy includes **ophthalmoplegia** (often nystagmus or gaze palsies), **ataxia**, and **confusion** (or global confusion), and polyneuritis is also associated with chronic thiamine deficiency [2]. It can occur in people who fast or have other conditions leading to severe malnutrition. *I, III and IV* - This option incorrectly states that Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by **niacin deficiency**. Niacin deficiency causes **pellagra**. - The remaining statements regarding its occurrence in alcoholics, characteristic features (including polyneuritis), and occurrence in people who fast are correct. *I, II and III* - This option incorrectly attributes the cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy to **niacin deficiency**. - While statements II and III are correct regarding its association with alcoholism and its characteristic features [1], [2], the error in statement I makes this option incorrect. *I, II and IV* - This option is incorrect because it states that Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by **niacin deficiency**. - While the statements regarding its occurrence in alcoholics and in people who fast are accurate, statement I is fundamentally false.
Pediatrics
1 questionsIn the case of a 7 -year-old school-going child, which would be the most appropriate indicator to measure the current nutritional status?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Pediatrics UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: In the case of a 7 -year-old school-going child, which would be the most appropriate indicator to measure the current nutritional status?
- A. Birth weight
- B. Head circumference
- C. Mid upper arm circumference (Correct Answer)
- D. Weight for height
Explanation: ***Mid upper arm circumference*** - **Mid-upper arm circumference (MUAC)** is the most appropriate indicator among the given options for assessing **current nutritional status** in a 7-year-old school-going child. - While traditionally emphasized for children 6-59 months, **MUAC is increasingly recognized as a valid indicator for school-aged children (5-15 years)** for detecting acute malnutrition and wasting. - MUAC is **age-independent, practical, and can be measured easily** in school settings, making it particularly useful for screening current nutritional status in this age group. - **Note:** Ideally, **BMI-for-age** is the gold standard recommended by WHO and IAP for children aged 5-19 years, but it is not among the options provided. *Weight for height* - **Weight-for-height (WFH)** is primarily recommended for **children under 5 years of age** or those with height <120 cm according to WHO guidelines. - For school-aged children (>5 years), **BMI-for-age is the preferred indicator**, not WFH. - WFH becomes less accurate and less practical in older children, making it inappropriate as the primary indicator for a 7-year-old. *Birth weight* - **Birth weight** reflects **intrauterine growth and nutritional status at delivery**, not the current nutritional status of a 7-year-old child. - It is useful for assessing risk factors and early life influences but has no bearing on current nutritional assessment in school-aged children. *Head circumference* - **Head circumference** is primarily used to assess **brain growth** and detect conditions like **microcephaly or macrocephaly**, particularly in infancy and early childhood (up to 2-3 years). - In a 7-year-old, head growth has largely plateaued, and this measurement is **not useful for assessing current general nutritional status**.
Physiology
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions CAN BE transmitted as a recessive, sex-linked trait? I. Retinitis pigmentosa II. Colour blindness III. Cystic fibrosis IV. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Select the correct answer using the code given below :
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Physiology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Which of the following conditions CAN BE transmitted as a recessive, sex-linked trait? I. Retinitis pigmentosa II. Colour blindness III. Cystic fibrosis IV. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. II, III and IV
- B. I, II and IV (Correct Answer)
- C. I, II and III
- D. I, III and IV
Explanation: ***I, II and IV*** - All three conditions listed—**Retinitis Pigmentosa**, **Colour Blindness**, and **Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy**—can be inherited as recessive, **sex-linked traits**. - **Sex-linked inheritance** primarily refers to genes located on the **X chromosome**; males are more frequently affected because they have only one X chromosome. *II, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Cystic Fibrosis**, which is an **autosomal recessive disorder**, not a sex-linked trait. - While **Colour Blindness** and **Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy** are sex-linked, their grouping with an autosomal condition makes this option incorrect. *I, II and III* - This option also incorrectly includes **Cystic Fibrosis** as a sex-linked trait. - **Retinitis Pigmentosa** and **Colour Blindness** can be sex-linked, but the inclusion of **Cystic Fibrosis** renders the entire option incorrect. *I, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Cystic Fibrosis**; it is an **autosomal recessive condition**, not sex-linked. - Although **Retinitis Pigmentosa** and **Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy** are correctly identified as conditions that can be sex-linked, the incorrect inclusion of **Cystic Fibrosis** makes this option wrong.