UPSC-CMS 2025 — Community Medicine

31 Questions — Page 2 of 4

Q11

Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) : I. Early detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of HBNC. II. ANM is the main person involved in the delivery of HBNC. III. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the key objectives of HBNC. IV. The primary aim of HBNC is to improve newborn survival. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q12

Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation provide the STI/RTI services?

Q13

Which of the following strategies were encouraged by the UNICEF under its 'GOBI Campaign'? I. G for growth charts to better monitor child development II. O for oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration III. B for better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age IV. I for immunization against measles, diphtheria, polio, pertussis, tetanus and tuberculosis Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Q14

What is the limit of daily exposure of noise that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing?

Q15

How much illumination is recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society for general office work?

Q16

With which variety of asbestos, Mesothelioma has been shown to have a strong association?

Q17

Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016, human anatomical waste is to be carried in which colour plastic bags?

Q18

What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly? I. They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted in great numbers in faeces. II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification. III. They survive lesser than the pathogens. IV. They are easily detected by culture methods. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Q19

The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken : I. It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mu g folic acid. II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach. III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q20

The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027?

UPSC-CMS 2025 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 11: Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) : I. Early detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of HBNC. II. ANM is the main person involved in the delivery of HBNC. III. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the key objectives of HBNC. IV. The primary aim of HBNC is to improve newborn survival. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I, III and IV only (Correct Answer)
B. I and II only
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II and III only

Explanation: ***I, III and IV only*** - **Statement I is CORRECT**: Early detection and special care of **pre-term and low birth weight newborns** is a major objective of HBNC, as preterm birth is a significant risk factor for neonatal morbidity and mortality. - **Statement III is CORRECT**: Supporting families in adopting **healthy practices** like optimal breastfeeding, cord care, thermal regulation, and recognition of danger signs is fundamental to achieving HBNC objectives. - **Statement IV is CORRECT**: The **primary aim of HBNC** is to **improve newborn survival** and reduce neonatal mortality by ensuring essential healthcare services reach every newborn through home visits. - **Statement II is INCORRECT**: **ASHA workers** are the main persons involved in delivering HBNC through home visits (minimum 6 visits for institutional deliveries, more for home deliveries). ANMs provide **supervisory support** but are NOT the primary service deliverers. *I and II only* - Incorrect because statement II is false - **ASHA workers**, not ANMs, are the primary HBNC service providers. *I, II, III and IV* - Incorrect because statement II is false - ANMs supervise HBNC but **ASHA workers** conduct the actual home visits and deliver care. *II and III only* - Incorrect because statement II is false, and statements I and IV (which are correct) are excluded from this option.

Question 12: Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation provide the STI/RTI services?

A. Chhaya Clinic
B. Antara Clinic
C. Sathi Clinic
D. Suraksha Clinic (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Suraksha Clinic*** - The National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) provides its **STI/RTI services** under the brand name **Suraksha Clinic**. - These clinics offer confidential testing, treatment, and counseling for sexually transmitted infections and reproductive tract infections, aiming to control their spread. *Chhaya Clinic* - This is not the recognized brand name under which NACO provides STI/RTI services. - **NACO's initiatives** are specifically branded to ensure consistency and public recognition of their health programs. *Antara Clinic* - This is not the correct brand name for NACO's STI/RTI services. - The names of public health initiatives are often chosen to reflect their purpose and are standardized by the implementing organization. *Sathi Clinic* - This is not the designated name for NACO's STI/RTI services. - **Brand recognition** is crucial for public health programs to ensure that individuals seeking specific services can easily identify the correct facilities.

Question 13: Which of the following strategies were encouraged by the UNICEF under its 'GOBI Campaign'? I. G for growth charts to better monitor child development II. O for oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration III. B for better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age IV. I for immunization against measles, diphtheria, polio, pertussis, tetanus and tuberculosis Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and IV (Correct Answer)
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV

Explanation: ***I, II and IV*** - The **GOBI campaign** by UNICEF stands for Growth monitoring, Oral rehydration, Breastfeeding, and Immunization. - Option I (**Growth charts**) and Option IV (**Immunization**) are direct components of the GOBI strategy; Option II (**Oral rehydration**) is also a key part of the strategy, as its second letter 'O' refers to Oral Rehydration. *I, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes "better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age" as part of the GOBI campaign, which, while important child health practice, was not a direct component of the acronym. - The 'B' in GOBI specifically stands for **Breastfeeding**, not "better and continuous evaluation," making option III incorrect. *I, II and III* - This option incorrectly includes the detailed interpretation of 'B' as "better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age." - The actual 'B' in GOBI represents **Breastfeeding**, a crucial intervention for child health and nutrition. *II, III and IV* - This option omits "I. G for **growth charts to better monitor child development**," which is a fundamental component of the GOBI strategy (the 'G' in GOBI). - It also incorrectly interprets 'B' as "better and continuous evaluation," instead of **Breastfeeding**.

Question 14: What is the limit of daily exposure of noise that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing?

A. 105 dB
B. 85 dB (Correct Answer)
C. 65 dB
D. 90 dB

Explanation: ***85 dB*** - The **National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)** and **WHO** recommend an exposure limit of **85 dB** averaged over an 8-hour workday to prevent noise-induced hearing loss. - This is the internationally recognized safe limit; OSHA uses 85 dB as the **action level** for implementing hearing conservation programs (though OSHA's permissible exposure limit is 90 dB). - Exposure to noise levels above this threshold for prolonged periods can cause **permanent damage** to the hair cells in the cochlea. *Incorrect Option: 105 dB* - Exposure to **105 dB** for even a short duration (e.g., 10-15 minutes) can cause significant and potentially **irreversible hearing damage**. - This level is characteristic of very loud environments such as **heavy machinery** or **live concerts**. *Incorrect Option: 65 dB* - This level is considered **safe and non-damaging** for daily exposure even over extended periods. - It is typically the noise level of a normal **conversation** or a quiet office environment. - This is below the threshold where hearing protection is needed. *Incorrect Option: 90 dB* - While 90 dB is OSHA's permissible exposure limit for an 8-hour average, it carries a **higher risk of hearing loss** compared to the safer 85 dB standard. - Prolonged exposure at this level significantly increases the likelihood of developing **noise-induced hearing impairment**. - NIOSH and WHO recommend the lower 85 dB limit for better hearing protection.

Question 15: How much illumination is recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society for general office work?

A. 200 lux
B. 100 lux
C. 400 lux (Correct Answer)
D. 900 lux

Explanation: ***400 lux*** - The **Illuminating Engineering Society (IES)** recommends 400 lux for general office work, which includes tasks requiring moderate visual precision. - This level of illumination ensures **adequate visibility** and **reduces eye strain** for typical office activities. *200 lux* - This level is generally considered **too low** for detailed office work and would likely lead to eye fatigue and reduced productivity. - 200 lux might be suitable for casual areas like **corridors** or **waiting rooms**, but not for active work environments. *100 lux* - **100 lux** is an extremely low level of illumination, typically suitable for areas with very minimal visual requirements, such as **storage rooms or archives**. - It is **insufficient** for any form of general office work, making tasks difficult and uncomfortable. *900 lux* - While providing high illumination, **900 lux** is usually considered **excessive** for general office work and can lead to glare and discomfort. - Such high levels are typically reserved for **precision tasks** like drafting or detailed examination, where very fine visual discrimination is needed.

Question 16: With which variety of asbestos, Mesothelioma has been shown to have a strong association?

A. Crocidolite (Correct Answer)
B. Amosite
C. Chrysotile
D. Anthophyllite

Explanation: ***Crocidolite*** - **Crocidolite**, also known as blue asbestos, is the type of asbestos with the **strongest association** with the development of **mesothelioma**. - Its thin, needle-like fibers are highly durable and tend to penetrate deeply into lung tissue, making it particularly carcinogenic. *Amosite* - **Amosite**, or brown asbestos, is also associated with an increased risk of mesothelioma, but its carcinogenic potential is generally considered **lower than crocidolite**. - Exposure to amosite can also lead to other asbestos-related diseases such as **asbestosis** and **lung cancer**. *Chrysotile* - **Chrysotile**, or white asbestos, is the most commonly used type of asbestos and is generally thought to be **less carcinogenic** than amphibole forms like crocidolite and amosite. - While it can still cause mesothelioma, the risk is lower compared to crocidolite, and it is more commonly associated with **asbestosis**. *Anthophyllite* - **Anthophyllite** is a rare form of asbestos with a limited industrial history and **less data** regarding its direct association with mesothelioma compared to other types. - However, like all asbestos fibers, it is classified as a human carcinogen and exposure can contribute to the development of asbestos-related diseases.

Question 17: Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016, human anatomical waste is to be carried in which colour plastic bags?

A. Red
B. Yellow (Correct Answer)
C. White
D. Blue

Explanation: ***Yellow*** - **Human anatomical waste** (e.g., organs, tissues, body parts) is designated to be collected in **yellow** plastic bags according to the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016. - This category also includes soiled waste (items contaminated with blood/body fluids), expired medicines, and chemical waste. - This waste is typically **incinerated or deeply buried** to ensure proper disposal and prevent the spread of infection. *Red* - **Red** plastic bags are used for **contaminated waste (recyclable)**, such as tubing, catheters, intravenous sets, soiled gloves, and other contaminated plastic items. - This waste is **sterilized by autoclaving/microwaving** before being shredded and sent for recycling. *White* - **White (translucent)** bags are used for **sharp waste** including needles, syringes with needles, scalpel blades, and broken glass. - Also used for waste sharps including metals. - This waste is **disinfected by autoclaving/microwaving** and then subjected to shredding or mutilation. *Blue* - **Blue** bags are used for **glassware and metallic body implants** (e.g., broken or discarded glass vials, ampoules). - This waste is **disinfected/autoclaved** and then sent for recycling or appropriate disposal.

Question 18: What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly? I. They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted in great numbers in faeces. II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification. III. They survive lesser than the pathogens. IV. They are easily detected by culture methods. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. II and III
B. I and IV (Correct Answer)
C. I only
D. IV only

Explanation: ***I and IV*** - **Coliforms** are found in abundance in the human intestine and are excreted in large numbers, making their presence a reliable indicator of potential fecal contamination. - They are also relatively **easy to detect** using standard culture methods, which allows for rapid and cost-effective testing of water quality. *II and III* - This statement is incorrect because coliforms generally have **higher resistance** to environmental stresses and **survive longer** in water than many fastidious waterborne pathogens. - If coliforms survived less than pathogens, their absence would not guarantee the absence of more resilient harmful organisms. *I only* - While statement I is correct, it does not fully encompass all the critical reasons for using coliforms as indicators. The **ease of detection** (statement IV) is equally crucial for their practical application. - Relying solely on abundance would make monitoring less efficient without practical and rapid detection methods. *IV only* - While statement IV is correct, it fails to mention the critical aspect of **coliform abundance** in feces, which makes them a meaningful indicator. - The ease of detection alone wouldn't make them suitable if they weren't consistently present in fecal matter.

Question 19: The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken : I. It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 mu g folic acid. II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach. III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I and II (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Correct: I and II*** - The **Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS)** program targets adolescent boys and girls for anaemia control - **Statement I is correct:** The program involves supervised weekly administration of **100 mg elemental iron** and **500 μg folic acid** - **Statement II is correct:** Supplements are administered using a **fixed-day approach** (e.g., every Wednesday) to ensure adherence and systematic implementation - Both statements accurately reflect the core interventions of the WIFS program *Incorrect: I only* - This is incomplete as it excludes Statement II, which describes the crucial fixed-day implementation strategy - While the supplementation dosage is correct, the delivery mechanism (fixed day) is equally important *Incorrect: II only* - This misses the essential component of the actual supplementation (iron and folic acid dosage) - The fixed-day approach alone without the supplementation details is incomplete *Incorrect: I and III* - **Statement III is incorrect:** Albendazole 400 mg for deworming is administered **twice yearly (every 6 months)**, NOT every 3 months - While deworming is part of the comprehensive WIFS strategy, the frequency stated in Statement III is inaccurate - Only Statement I is correct in this combination

Question 20: The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027?

A. All states and UTs must establish fully functional malaria surveillance to track, investigate and respond to each case.
B. Entire country has to initiate the process for certification of malaria elimination.
C. All states and UTs must reduce API to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk. (Correct Answer)
D. Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria.

Explanation: ***All states and UTs must reduce API to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk.*** - The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) set a specific target to reduce the **Annual Parasite Incidence (API)** to less than 1 case per 1000 population at risk in all states and Union Territories **by 2027**. - This milestone is a crucial intermediate step towards achieving complete malaria elimination, focusing on significant reduction in disease burden. *All states and UTs must establish fully functional malaria surveillance to track, investigate and respond to each case.* - Establishing fully functional malaria surveillance is an **ongoing and foundational requirement** throughout the elimination program, rather than a specific target solely for 2027. - While essential for elimination, it's a **continuous process** to monitor and respond to cases, not a single milestone bound to a specific year like 2027 in the context of API reduction. *Entire country has to initiate the process for certification of malaria elimination.* - The initiation of the process for certification of malaria elimination across the entire country is targeted for **2030**, reflecting the final stage of the elimination program. - This step occurs after achieving significant reduction and 0 indigenous cases, not as early as 2027. *Entire country is to have no indigenous cases and no deaths due to malaria.* - The ultimate target of **eliminating indigenous malaria cases** and deaths nationwide is set for **2030**, marking complete elimination. - This represents the final goal, with **2027** focusing on the significant reduction of API as a prerequisite.