UPSC-CMS 2025 — Community Medicine
31 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Which one among the following vectors transmits the filaria *Loa loa*?
Which of the following are included as a "Deficiency" under the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) ? I. Hypothyroidism II. Vitamin A deficiency III. Anemia IV. Vitamin D deficiency Select the correct answer using the code given below :
The mother of a 14-month-old normally developing baby comes to you for feeding advice. Which of the following would be appropriate for her as per the IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) Program? I. Breastfeed as often as the child wants II. Keep the child in your lap and feed with your own hands III. Offer food from the family pot IV. Give 3 to 4 meals each day Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A surgical department of a premier medical college conducted a study on rates of post-operative wound infection. The results of the study were negative for the proposed hypothesis. What should the department do with the results?
Which of the following are criteria for cancer screening? I. Screening test should be sensitive and specific II. Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population III. The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective IV. Disease should be recognisable at an early stage Select the correct answer using the code given below :
As an index of thermal comfort, the 'Corrected Effective Temperature' is considered to be an improvement over 'Effective Temperature'. It deals with which of the following factors? I. Air velocity II. Humidity III. Mean radiant heat IV. Sweat rate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme?
A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever 'receptive' area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?
Under the Employees' State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit?
A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?
UPSC-CMS 2025 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which one among the following vectors transmits the filaria *Loa loa*?
- A. Cyclops
- B. Chrysops (Correct Answer)
- C. Simulium
- D. Culicoides
Explanation: ***Chrysops*** - **Deer flies** of the genus *Chrysops* are the **intermediate hosts** for *Loa loa*, transmitting the microfilariae when they bite. - These flies are typically found in the **humid rainforests of West and Central Africa**, where loiasis is endemic. *Cyclops* - *Cyclops* (copepods) are the **intermediate hosts** for **Dracunculus medinensis** (guinea worm) and **Diphyllobothrium latum** (fish tapeworm). - They are **freshwater crustaceans** and not involved in the transmission of filarial worms like *Loa loa*. *Simulium* - *Simulium* (blackflies) are the **vectors** for **Onchocerca volvulus**, which causes **onchocerciasis** (river blindness). - These flies breed in **fast-flowing rivers** and are known for their painful bites. *Culicoides* - *Culicoides* (biting midges) are the **vectors** for **Mansonella perstans** and **Mansonella streptocerca** filarial worms, as well as some viral diseases. - They are distinct from the *Chrysops* flies that transmit *Loa loa*.
Question 2: Which of the following are included as a "Deficiency" under the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) ? I. Hypothyroidism II. Vitamin A deficiency III. Anemia IV. Vitamin D deficiency Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, III and IV
- B. I, II and IV
- C. II, III and IV (Correct Answer)
- D. I, II and III
Explanation: ***II, III and IV*** - The **Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)** focuses on early identification and management of health conditions in children from birth to 18 years through the **"4Ds" framework**: Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, and Development delays. - Under **"Deficiencies"**, RBSK specifically includes: - **Vitamin A deficiency** - Causes night blindness and increased infection risk - **Anemia** - Commonly due to iron, folate, or B12 deficiency - **Vitamin D deficiency** - Leads to rickets and bone health issues - **Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM)** - **Hypothyroidism** is classified under **"Diseases"** (along with diabetes, rheumatic heart disease, etc.), NOT deficiencies, making it incorrect for this question. *I, III and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Hypothyroidism** as a deficiency, when it is actually classified under **"Diseases"** in the RBSK framework. - While Anemia (III) and Vitamin D deficiency (IV) are correctly identified as deficiencies, the inclusion of Hypothyroidism makes this option incorrect. *I, II and IV* - This option incorrectly includes **Hypothyroidism**, which falls under **"Diseases"** rather than deficiencies. - Although Vitamin A deficiency (II) and Vitamin D deficiency (IV) are correct deficiencies, the inclusion of Hypothyroidism disqualifies this option. *I, II and III* - This option incorrectly includes **Hypothyroidism** as a deficiency. RBSK categorizes endocrine disorders like hypothyroidism under **"Diseases"**. - While Vitamin A deficiency (II) and Anemia (III) are correctly identified as deficiencies, the inclusion of Hypothyroidism makes this option inaccurate.
Question 3: The mother of a 14-month-old normally developing baby comes to you for feeding advice. Which of the following would be appropriate for her as per the IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) Program? I. Breastfeed as often as the child wants II. Keep the child in your lap and feed with your own hands III. Offer food from the family pot IV. Give 3 to 4 meals each day Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. II, III and IV
- B. I, II and IV
- C. I, II and III
- D. I, III and IV (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I, III and IV*** - The IMNCI guidelines recommend continuing **breastfeeding on demand** up to two years of age or beyond, as it remains an important source of nutrients and immunity for the child. - Feeding from the **family pot** ensures the child is exposed to a variety of foods and is integrated into family eating patterns, and 3-4 meals per day is appropriate for a 14-month-old, providing adequate energy and nutrients. *II, III and IV* - While feeding from the family pot and 3-4 meals per day are correct, the recommendation to keep the child in the lap and feed with one's own hands is not universally applicable or the sole recommended method; promoting responsive feeding involves observing and responding to the child's cues. - The IMNCI guidelines emphasize **responsive feeding practices** where the caregiver observes and responds to the child's hunger and satiety cues rather than a specific physical feeding method. *I, II and IV* - Continuing breastfeeding and providing 3-4 meals per day are correct, but feeding with one's own hands in the lap is not a primary IMNCI guideline for feeding practices, which instead focuses on the quality of food and responsive feeding. - **Offering food from the family pot** is a crucial IMNCI recommendation to ensure dietary diversity and integration into family meals, which is missing from this option. *I, II and III* - While continuing breastfeeding and feeding from the family pot are correct, the explicit instruction to "keep the child in your lap and feed with your own hands" is not a central or universally emphasized IMNCI guideline in the same way as responsive feeding and dietary diversity. - The number of meals per day (3-4) is an important practical aspect of feeding a 14-month-old, which is excluded from this option, making it incomplete.
Question 4: A surgical department of a premier medical college conducted a study on rates of post-operative wound infection. The results of the study were negative for the proposed hypothesis. What should the department do with the results?
- A. Label them as worthless
- B. Redo the study with a new hypothesis
- C. Report the negative results (Correct Answer)
- D. Redesign the study and increase the sample size
Explanation: **Report the negative results** - All research findings, whether positive or negative, contribute to the body of scientific knowledge and should be **ethically reported** to prevent publication bias. - Reporting negative results helps other researchers avoid duplicating efforts and can inform future study designs, potentially leading to a better understanding of the topic. *Label them as worthless* - Labeling negative results as "worthless" contradicts the principles of **scientific integrity** and promotes publication bias, where only positive findings are disseminated. - Even negative findings can provide crucial insights, indicating that a particular intervention or hypothesis is not supported, thus saving time and resources for future research. *Redo the study with a new hypothesis* - While forming new hypotheses may be necessary in some cases, redoing the study with a completely new hypothesis without reporting the initial negative results would be **unethical** and contribute to the problem of **publication bias**. - **New hypotheses** should ideally be formulated based on a comprehensive understanding of existing research, including negative findings. *Redesign the study and increase the sample size* - While redesigning the study and increasing sample size might be appropriate after the initial results have been reported and analyzed, the **immediate and ethical step** is to report the existing negative findings. - A larger sample size alone does not guarantee positive results; careful reevaluation of the methods and hypothesis is needed if the initial study was well-conducted.
Question 5: Which of the following are criteria for cancer screening? I. Screening test should be sensitive and specific II. Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population III. The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective IV. Disease should be recognisable at an early stage Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. II, III and IV
- B. I, III and IV
- C. I, II and III
- D. I, II and IV (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***I, II and IV*** - A successful **screening test** should be **sensitive** (correctly identify those with the disease) and **specific** (correctly identify those without the disease) to minimize false negatives and false positives. - For a screening program to be effective, the test must be **acceptable** to the target population to ensure high participation rates. The disease should also be **recognizable at an early stage** to allow for timely and effective intervention. *II, III and IV* - This option is partially correct as it includes acceptability and early recognition, but incorrectly states that the disease should be uncommon. In reality, screening is often more impactful for diseases with a higher prevalence. - The claim that the disease should be uncommon is incorrect; screening programs are often prioritized for relatively common diseases where early detection can significantly alter outcomes. *I, III and IV* - This option correctly identifies the need for a sensitive and specific test, and early disease recognition, but it incorrectly asserts that the disease should be an uncommon one. - Screening is generally most beneficial for diseases with a significant prevalence, allowing for a substantial impact on public health. *I, II and III* - This option accurately points to the necessity of a sensitive and specific test and its acceptability to the screened population, but it mistakenly suggests that the disease should be uncommon. - Effective screening targets diseases where early detection can lead to improved outcomes, which are often diseases with a notable burden in the population.
Question 6: As an index of thermal comfort, the 'Corrected Effective Temperature' is considered to be an improvement over 'Effective Temperature'. It deals with which of the following factors? I. Air velocity II. Humidity III. Mean radiant heat IV. Sweat rate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A. I, III and IV
- B. I, II and III (Correct Answer)
- C. II, III and IV
- D. I and II only
Explanation: ***I, II and III*** - The **"Corrected Effective Temperature"** (CET) improves upon the standard Effective Temperature (ET) by incorporating the **mean radiant heat (radiant temperature)**, along with **air temperature**, **humidity**, and **air velocity**. - Unlike **Effective Temperature** which considered air temperature, humidity, and air velocity, CET acknowledges the significant impact of **radiant heat** from surrounding surfaces on human thermal comfort, making it a more comprehensive index. - The key improvement: CET = ET + Mean Radiant Heat consideration. *I, III and IV* - While **air velocity** and **mean radiant heat** are indeed considered in CET, **sweat rate** is not a direct input parameter for calculating CET. - **Sweat rate** is a physiological response to thermal stress, not an environmental factor measured by thermal comfort indices. - CET aims to provide an objective index of thermal sensation based on environmental parameters, rather than individual physiological responses. *II, III and IV* - This option correctly identifies **humidity** and **mean radiant heat** as factors, but incorrectly includes **sweat rate** as a direct component of CET calculation. - **Air velocity** (I) is a crucial factor in both ET and CET, and its exclusion makes this option incomplete and incorrect. *I and II only* - This option is incomplete as it omits **mean radiant heat (III)**, which is the defining improvement that distinguishes CET from ET. - While **air velocity (I)** and **humidity (II)** are indeed part of CET, without including the radiant heat component, this would essentially describe only part of the Effective Temperature index, not the Corrected version.
Question 7: In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme?
- A. DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age (Correct Answer)
- B. DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age
- C. DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age
- D. DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age
Explanation: ***DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age*** - Under the **Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)**, this represents the accepted upper age limit for catch-up vaccination in children who have not received any previous doses - **DPT vaccine** (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus) can be given up to **7 years of age** for primary immunization series - **OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine)** can be administered up to **5 years of age** for catch-up immunization - Beyond these ages, alternative formulations are typically used (Td vaccine for older children instead of DPT) *DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age* - These age limits **exceed the standard UIP guidelines** for catch-up vaccination - Not the recommended upper age limits for primary immunization series - Would be beyond the typical age range for initiating these vaccines in unimmunized children *DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age* - These age cut-offs are **significantly higher than UIP recommendations** - For children beyond standard ages, **Td (Tetanus-diphtheria)** vaccine is preferred over DPT - These limits do not align with catch-up vaccination protocols under UIP *DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age* - While closer to the correct limits, these ages still **exceed the standard recommendations** - The accepted upper limits are **7 years for DPT** and **5 years for OPV** under UIP guidelines - Not the officially recognized age cut-offs for catch-up immunization
Question 8: A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever 'receptive' area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?
- A. 7 days
- B. 8 days
- C. 10 days
- D. 6 days (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Option: 6 days*** - International Health Regulations (IHR) specify that a traveler without a valid yellow fever vaccination certificate arriving from an endemic area into a receptive area must be placed in **quarantine for 6 days** from the date of leaving the infected territory. - This quarantine period corresponds to the **maximum incubation period of yellow fever (3-6 days)**, ensuring that if the traveler was infected just before departure, any clinical manifestations would appear before release from quarantine. - This prevents potential transmission by **Aedes aegypti mosquitoes** in the receptive area during the viremic phase. *Incorrect Option: 7 days* - While 7 days is a common quarantine period for some diseases, it is **one day longer** than the internationally stipulated period for yellow fever under IHR. - Quarantining for an excessive period is unnecessary and places an **undue burden** on the traveler. *Incorrect Option: 8 days* - This period is **longer than the maximum incubation period** for yellow fever and is not the recommended duration under IHR. - It would lead to an extended and **unjustified restriction** of the traveler's movement. *Incorrect Option: 10 days* - 10 days is a significantly **longer period** than scientifically necessary for yellow fever quarantine, based on its known incubation period. - Such an extended quarantine would be **disproportionate** to the actual risk and violates IHR guidelines.
Question 9: Under the Employees' State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit?
- A. 61 days
- B. 121 days
- C. 30 days
- D. 91 days (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***91 days*** - Under the **Employees' State Insurance Act 1948**, the maximum period for which **sickness cash benefit** is payable is **91 days** in a continuous period of 365 days. - This benefit is provided to **insured persons** when their sickness is duly certified by an **Insurance Medical Officer**. *61 days* - This period is **incorrect** as the Act specifies a longer maximum period for sickness benefit. - The figure of 61 days does not align with the provisions for ordinary sickness benefit under ESIC. *121 days* - This period is **incorrect** and exceeds the standard maximum duration for ordinary sickness benefit. - While there are extended benefits for certain chronic diseases, the general sickness benefit is not 121 days. *30 days* - This period is **incorrect** and significantly shorter than the actual maximum period stipulated by the ESIC Act. - A 30-day period would not adequately cover most common sickness episodes that qualify for this benefit.
Question 10: A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?
- A. Propagative transmission
- B. Cyclo-propagative transmission
- C. Mechanical transmission (Correct Answer)
- D. Cyclo-developmental transmission
Explanation: ***Mechanical transmission (Correct Answer)*** - Houseflies are **classic mechanical vectors** that transmit pathogens through physical transfer. - They pick up pathogens on their **legs, proboscis, or body hairs** from contaminated sources (feces, garbage) and physically transport them to food or other surfaces. - This method involves **no biological multiplication or development** of the pathogen within the fly. - Common diseases transmitted: **Typhoid, cholera, dysentery, diarrheal diseases, trachoma**. *Propagative transmission (Incorrect)* - This involves the **multiplication** of the pathogen within the vector, but no developmental changes. - Houseflies do **not** support pathogen multiplication in their bodies. - Example of this type: Mosquitoes transmitting **arboviruses** like dengue or Zika. *Cyclo-propagative transmission (Incorrect)* - The pathogen undergoes both **multiplication and developmental changes** within the vector. - Houseflies are **not biological vectors** and cannot support this process. - Classic example: **Malarial parasite** (Plasmodium) in Anopheles mosquitoes. *Cyclo-developmental transmission (Incorrect)* - The pathogen undergoes **developmental changes** within the vector but does not multiply. - Houseflies do **not** serve as intermediate hosts for pathogen development. - Example: **Filarial worms** in mosquitoes developing into infective larvae.