UPSC-CMS 2019 — Internal Medicine

Q: Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Platelet count ( 38˚C)* - **Fever** is a classic sign of inflammation and infection, and a temperature greater than 38°C is one of the key diagnostic criteria for SIRS. [2] - This indicates the body's systemic inflammatory response to a perceived insult. [3] *Tachypnoea (>20/min)* - An increased **respiratory rate**, or **tachypnea**, is another important criterion for SIRS, reflecting increased metabolic demand or respiratory compensation. - This criterion helps identify patients with a significant physiological response to inflammation. *Hypothermia (<36˚C)* - While less common than fever, **hypothermia** (temperature less than 36°C) can also be a sign of a severe systemic inflammatory response, particularly in immunocompromised or severely ill patients. - It signifies a dysregulated thermoregulatory response in SIRS. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following statements regarding lymphoedema are correct? 1. Patients experience constant dull ache and even severe pain sometimes 2. Manual lymphatic drainage has a role 3. Primary lymphoedema is caused by congenital lymphatic dysplasia 4. Nonne Milroy's disease is a type of primary lymphoedema Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4. ***1, 2, 3 and 4*** - All four statements are correct regarding lymphoedema. Patients often experience **constant dull ache and severe pain** due to the swelling and tissue changes. - **Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD)** is a key component of complete decongestive therapy for lymphoedema, aiming to reduce swelling and improve lymphatic flow. **Primary lymphoedema** is indeed caused by **congenital lymphatic dysplasia**, which refers to abnormalities in lymphatic system development from birth. **Milroy's disease** (also known as Nonne-Milroy disease) is a specific type of primary lymphoedema characterized by early-onset lymphatic dysfunction. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incomplete as statements 3 and 4 are also correct. - It correctly identifies the role of manual lymphatic drainage and the presence of pain in lymphoedema but omits other accurate facts. *3 and 4 only* - This option is incomplete as statements 1 and 2 are also correct. - While correctly identifying the nature of primary lymphoedema and Milroy's disease, it misses other important aspects of lymphoedema. *1, 2, and 3 only* - This option is incomplete because statement 4, concerning Milroy's disease as a type of primary lymphoedema, is also correct. - It provides correct information about pain, MLD, and the cause of primary lymphoedema but omits a specific example of primary lymphoedema. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A few days following viral fever, a 50 year old female presented with pain in neck, fever, malaise and firm enlargement of both the lobes of thyroid. On investigation thyroid antibodies were normal & serum T4 was high normal. Probable diagnosis is:

Granulomatous thyroiditis. ***Granulomatous thyroiditis*** - The presentation of **neck pain**, **fever**, **malaise**, and **firm, enlarged thyroid lobes** following a viral fever, along with normal thyroid antibodies and high-normal T4, is highly characteristic of **subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)** [1]. - This condition is typically **post-viral**, causes inflammation leading to temporary hyperthyroidism due to hormone release, and is often painful [1]. *Lymphoma of thyroid* - Thyroid lymphoma usually presents as a **rapidly growing neck mass** in older individuals and is not typically preceded by a viral illness. - It is less commonly associated with pain and fever in this manner, and thyroid function can be variable. *Riedel's thyroiditis* - **Riedel's thyroiditis** is a rare, invasive fibrosis of the thyroid and surrounding structures, leading to a **rock-hard, painless goiter**. - It does not typically follow a viral infection with acute pain and fever or present with high-normal T4. *Autoimmune thyroiditis* - **Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's thyroiditis)** is characterized by elevated thyroid antibodies and typically presents with **hypothyroidism**, often with a **painless goiter**. - It does not usually follow a viral illness with acute pain and fever or cause temporary thyrotoxicosis with normal antibodies [1]. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A gentleman of 36 years presented with a long history of upper abdominal pain which was periodic and often occurred early morning. For last 3 months, he is having projectile vomiting, which is non bilious, unpleasant in nature with undigested food materials. On examination he appears unwell, dehydrated and seemed to have lost weight. Probably he is suffering from:

Gastric outlet obstruction. ***Gastric outlet obstruction*** - The combination of a long history of **periodic upper abdominal pain** followed by **projectile, non-bilious vomiting** containing undigested food is highly characteristic of gastric outlet obstruction. [1] - **Weight loss** and **dehydration** are common due to inadequate nutrient absorption and persistent vomiting. [1] *Superior mesenteric artery syndrome* - This syndrome is characterized by compression of the **duodenum** between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. - While it can cause vomiting and weight loss, the presenting symptoms are typically more acute or chronic pain related to postural changes, and not usually preceded by a long history of periodic upper abdominal pain suggesting prior peptic ulcer disease. *Carcinoma stomach* - While carcinoma of the stomach can cause weight loss and vomiting due to obstruction, the long history of **relieving periodic pain** prior to the onset of projectile vomiting is less typical. - Vomiting in carcinoma stomach might be bilious if the tumor is distal to the ampulla of Vater. *Gastro-oesophageal reflux with oesophagitis* - This condition primarily causes **heartburn**, regurgitation, and sometimes difficulty swallowing or chest pain. - It does not typically lead to repeated **projectile vomiting** of undigested food or significant weight loss in the absence of severe complications like stricture formation, which would present differently. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 40 year old female patient presents with colicky abdominal pain associated with episodes of mild diarrhoea for last 6 months accompanied with intermittent fever and weight loss. There are multiple discharging sinuses on perineal examination. The most likely clinical diagnosis in this patient is:

Crohn disease. ### Crohn disease - **Colicky abdominal pain**, **diarrhea**, **fever**, and **weight loss** are classic symptoms of Crohn disease, indicating chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract [1]. - The presence of **discharging perineal sinuses** is highly characteristic of Crohn disease, as it commonly manifests with **perianal disease** including fistulas and abscesses [1]. ### Ileocaecal Tuberculosis - While ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, and weight loss, **perianal sinuses** are a less common feature compared to Crohn disease. - Diagnosis typically requires **histopathological evidence** of granulomas with caseous necrosis and acid-fast bacilli, which is not suggested by the initial presentation. ### Ulcerative colitis - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenesmus, but rarely causes **perianal fistulas** or sinuses [1]. - The disease typically presents with **continuous inflammation** extending proximally from the rectum, unlike the skip lesions seen in Crohn disease. ### Amoebic colitis - **Amoebic colitis** is an infectious cause of diarrhea, often bloody, with abdominal pain, but typically presents with a more **acute course** and is less commonly associated with chronic weight loss or perianal disease. - Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying **_Entamoeba histolytica_ trophozoites** or cysts in stool or tissue, and the presence of chronic discharging sinuses is not typical. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

10 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

All Subjects Anatomy (1)Anesthesiology (1)Biochemistry (3)Community Medicine (28)ENT (1)Internal Medicine (10)Microbiology (1)Obstetrics and Gynecology (37)Ophthalmology (2)Orthopaedics (1)Pathology (5)Pediatrics (3)Pharmacology (6)Physiology (2)Radiology (2)Surgery (16)

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

Which of the following statements regarding lymphoedema are correct? 1. Patients experience constant dull ache and even severe pain sometimes 2. Manual lymphatic drainage has a role 3. Primary lymphoedema is caused by congenital lymphatic dysplasia 4. Nonne Milroy's disease is a type of primary lymphoedema Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A few days following viral fever, a 50 year old female presented with pain in neck, fever, malaise and firm enlargement of both the lobes of thyroid. On investigation thyroid antibodies were normal & serum T4 was high normal. Probable diagnosis is:

A gentleman of 36 years presented with a long history of upper abdominal pain which was periodic and often occurred early morning. For last 3 months, he is having projectile vomiting, which is non bilious, unpleasant in nature with undigested food materials. On examination he appears unwell, dehydrated and seemed to have lost weight. Probably he is suffering from:

A 40 year old female patient presents with colicky abdominal pain associated with episodes of mild diarrhoea for last 6 months accompanied with intermittent fever and weight loss. There are multiple discharging sinuses on perineal examination. The most likely clinical diagnosis in this patient is:

A gentleman of 48 years was being worked up for hepatocellular function. He had no history or signs of encephalopathy. His serum bilirubin was 5 mg%, serum albumin was 3.9 gm%, International normalized ratio was 1.6. On ultrasound no free fluid was detected inside abdomen. As per Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) classification, he was in:

Consider the following statements regarding Opportunistic post-splenectomy infections (OPSI): 1. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causative agents 2. Risk is greatest in the patients who have undergone splenectomy for trauma 3. Risk is greatest within the first 2–3 years following splenectomy 4. Prophylactic vaccination should be done 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 50 year old male presented with pain along the left arm and ptosis. His chest X-ray showed soft tissue opacity at the apex of the left lung along with the erosion of the adjacent rib. The probable diagnosis is:

Refeeding syndrome seen after enteral or parenteral nutrition is characterized by all EXCEPT:

Q10

The capillary refill time is prolonged in all types of shock EXCEPT:

UPSC-CMS 2019 - Internal Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Hyperthermia (>38˚C)
B. Platelet count (<1,00,000/mm3) (Correct Answer)
C. Tachypnoea (>20/min)
D. Hypothermia (<36˚C)

Explanation: ***Platelet count (<1,00,000/mm3)*** - While **thrombocytopenia** can be a feature of severe infection or systemic illness, it is not one of the defining diagnostic criteria for **SIRS**. [1] - The definition of SIRS primarily focuses on inflammatory markers like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and white blood cell count. *Hyperthermia (>38˚C)* - **Fever** is a classic sign of inflammation and infection, and a temperature greater than 38°C is one of the key diagnostic criteria for SIRS. [2] - This indicates the body's systemic inflammatory response to a perceived insult. [3] *Tachypnoea (>20/min)* - An increased **respiratory rate**, or **tachypnea**, is another important criterion for SIRS, reflecting increased metabolic demand or respiratory compensation. - This criterion helps identify patients with a significant physiological response to inflammation. *Hypothermia (<36˚C)* - While less common than fever, **hypothermia** (temperature less than 36°C) can also be a sign of a severe systemic inflammatory response, particularly in immunocompromised or severely ill patients. - It signifies a dysregulated thermoregulatory response in SIRS.

Question 2: Which of the following statements regarding lymphoedema are correct? 1. Patients experience constant dull ache and even severe pain sometimes 2. Manual lymphatic drainage has a role 3. Primary lymphoedema is caused by congenital lymphatic dysplasia 4. Nonne Milroy's disease is a type of primary lymphoedema Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: ***1, 2, 3 and 4*** - All four statements are correct regarding lymphoedema. Patients often experience **constant dull ache and severe pain** due to the swelling and tissue changes. - **Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD)** is a key component of complete decongestive therapy for lymphoedema, aiming to reduce swelling and improve lymphatic flow. **Primary lymphoedema** is indeed caused by **congenital lymphatic dysplasia**, which refers to abnormalities in lymphatic system development from birth. **Milroy's disease** (also known as Nonne-Milroy disease) is a specific type of primary lymphoedema characterized by early-onset lymphatic dysfunction. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incomplete as statements 3 and 4 are also correct. - It correctly identifies the role of manual lymphatic drainage and the presence of pain in lymphoedema but omits other accurate facts. *3 and 4 only* - This option is incomplete as statements 1 and 2 are also correct. - While correctly identifying the nature of primary lymphoedema and Milroy's disease, it misses other important aspects of lymphoedema. *1, 2, and 3 only* - This option is incomplete because statement 4, concerning Milroy's disease as a type of primary lymphoedema, is also correct. - It provides correct information about pain, MLD, and the cause of primary lymphoedema but omits a specific example of primary lymphoedema.

Question 3: A few days following viral fever, a 50 year old female presented with pain in neck, fever, malaise and firm enlargement of both the lobes of thyroid. On investigation thyroid antibodies were normal & serum T4 was high normal. Probable diagnosis is:

A. Lymphoma of thyroid
B. Riedel's thyroiditis
C. Autoimmune thyroiditis
D. Granulomatous thyroiditis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Granulomatous thyroiditis*** - The presentation of **neck pain**, **fever**, **malaise**, and **firm, enlarged thyroid lobes** following a viral fever, along with normal thyroid antibodies and high-normal T4, is highly characteristic of **subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)** [1]. - This condition is typically **post-viral**, causes inflammation leading to temporary hyperthyroidism due to hormone release, and is often painful [1]. *Lymphoma of thyroid* - Thyroid lymphoma usually presents as a **rapidly growing neck mass** in older individuals and is not typically preceded by a viral illness. - It is less commonly associated with pain and fever in this manner, and thyroid function can be variable. *Riedel's thyroiditis* - **Riedel's thyroiditis** is a rare, invasive fibrosis of the thyroid and surrounding structures, leading to a **rock-hard, painless goiter**. - It does not typically follow a viral infection with acute pain and fever or present with high-normal T4. *Autoimmune thyroiditis* - **Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's thyroiditis)** is characterized by elevated thyroid antibodies and typically presents with **hypothyroidism**, often with a **painless goiter**. - It does not usually follow a viral illness with acute pain and fever or cause temporary thyrotoxicosis with normal antibodies [1].

Question 4: A gentleman of 36 years presented with a long history of upper abdominal pain which was periodic and often occurred early morning. For last 3 months, he is having projectile vomiting, which is non bilious, unpleasant in nature with undigested food materials. On examination he appears unwell, dehydrated and seemed to have lost weight. Probably he is suffering from:

A. Gastric outlet obstruction (Correct Answer)
B. Superior mesenteric artery syndrome
C. Carcinoma stomach
D. Gastro-oesophageal reflux with oesophagitis

Explanation: ***Gastric outlet obstruction*** - The combination of a long history of **periodic upper abdominal pain** followed by **projectile, non-bilious vomiting** containing undigested food is highly characteristic of gastric outlet obstruction. [1] - **Weight loss** and **dehydration** are common due to inadequate nutrient absorption and persistent vomiting. [1] *Superior mesenteric artery syndrome* - This syndrome is characterized by compression of the **duodenum** between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. - While it can cause vomiting and weight loss, the presenting symptoms are typically more acute or chronic pain related to postural changes, and not usually preceded by a long history of periodic upper abdominal pain suggesting prior peptic ulcer disease. *Carcinoma stomach* - While carcinoma of the stomach can cause weight loss and vomiting due to obstruction, the long history of **relieving periodic pain** prior to the onset of projectile vomiting is less typical. - Vomiting in carcinoma stomach might be bilious if the tumor is distal to the ampulla of Vater. *Gastro-oesophageal reflux with oesophagitis* - This condition primarily causes **heartburn**, regurgitation, and sometimes difficulty swallowing or chest pain. - It does not typically lead to repeated **projectile vomiting** of undigested food or significant weight loss in the absence of severe complications like stricture formation, which would present differently.

Question 5: A 40 year old female patient presents with colicky abdominal pain associated with episodes of mild diarrhoea for last 6 months accompanied with intermittent fever and weight loss. There are multiple discharging sinuses on perineal examination. The most likely clinical diagnosis in this patient is:

A. Ileocaecal Tuberculosis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Crohn disease (Correct Answer)
D. Amoebic colitis

Explanation: ### Crohn disease - **Colicky abdominal pain**, **diarrhea**, **fever**, and **weight loss** are classic symptoms of Crohn disease, indicating chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract [1]. - The presence of **discharging perineal sinuses** is highly characteristic of Crohn disease, as it commonly manifests with **perianal disease** including fistulas and abscesses [1]. ### Ileocaecal Tuberculosis - While ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with abdominal pain, diarrhea, fever, and weight loss, **perianal sinuses** are a less common feature compared to Crohn disease. - Diagnosis typically requires **histopathological evidence** of granulomas with caseous necrosis and acid-fast bacilli, which is not suggested by the initial presentation. ### Ulcerative colitis - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenesmus, but rarely causes **perianal fistulas** or sinuses [1]. - The disease typically presents with **continuous inflammation** extending proximally from the rectum, unlike the skip lesions seen in Crohn disease. ### Amoebic colitis - **Amoebic colitis** is an infectious cause of diarrhea, often bloody, with abdominal pain, but typically presents with a more **acute course** and is less commonly associated with chronic weight loss or perianal disease. - Diagnosis is confirmed by identifying **_Entamoeba histolytica_ trophozoites** or cysts in stool or tissue, and the presence of chronic discharging sinuses is not typical.

Question 6: A gentleman of 48 years was being worked up for hepatocellular function. He had no history or signs of encephalopathy. His serum bilirubin was 5 mg%, serum albumin was 3.9 gm%, International normalized ratio was 1.6. On ultrasound no free fluid was detected inside abdomen. As per Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) classification, he was in:

A. CTP–D
B. CTP–A
C. CTP–B (Correct Answer)
D. CTP–C

Explanation: CTP–B - This patient scores 2 points for bilirubin (3.5-5 mg%), 1 point for albumin (>3.5 gm%), 2 points for INR (1.7-2.3), 1 point for no encephalopathy, and 1 point for no ascites. This sums to **7 points**, which falls into the **CTP Class B** range (7-9 points). - The CTP classification is used to assess the prognosis of **chronic liver disease**, primarily **cirrhosis**, based on five clinical and laboratory criteria [1]. CTP–D - The CTP classification only includes A, B, and C; there is no CTP–D class. - This option is incorrect as it represents a classification that does not exist within the CTP scoring system. CTP–A - CTP Class A requires a total score of 5-6 points, indicating **mild liver dysfunction**. - This patient's calculated score of 7 points places him beyond the Class A category. CTP–C - CTP Class C requires a total score of 10-15 points, indicating **severe liver dysfunction**. - This patient's score of 7 points is considerably lower than the range for Class C.

Question 7: Consider the following statements regarding Opportunistic post-splenectomy infections (OPSI): 1. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae are the most common causative agents 2. Risk is greatest in the patients who have undergone splenectomy for trauma 3. Risk is greatest within the first 2–3 years following splenectomy 4. Prophylactic vaccination should be done 2 weeks prior to elective splenectomy Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **_Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis_**, and **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** are encapsulated bacteria, making them the most common causative agents of **overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI)**. The spleen plays a crucial role in filtering these organisms. - The risk of OPSI is indeed **greatest** in patients who have undergone splenectomy for **trauma**, likely due to both the acute physiological stress and potentially less structured pre-operative vaccination protocols compared to elective splenectomies. - While OPSI can occur at any time, the risk is **highest** within the first **2–3 years** following splenectomy, but it remains a lifelong risk. *1, 2 and 4* - This option is incorrect because statement 3 is correct, and statement 4 is incorrect. - Prophylactic vaccination should optimally be done **2 weeks prior** to an elective splenectomy, but doing it **4-6 weeks prior** allows for a more robust immune response to develop. *1, 3 and 4* - This option is incorrect because statement 2 is correct, and statement 4 is incorrect. - The risk of OPSI is indeed highest in trauma patients, as they often undergo emergent splenectomy without prior vaccination. *2, 3 and 4* - This option is incorrect because statement 1 is correct, and statement 4 is incorrect. - _Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis_, and _Streptococcus pneumoniae_ are well-established primary pathogens responsible for OPSI.

Question 8: A 50 year old male presented with pain along the left arm and ptosis. His chest X-ray showed soft tissue opacity at the apex of the left lung along with the erosion of the adjacent rib. The probable diagnosis is:

A. Pancoast lung (Correct Answer)
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Lung abscess
D. Adenocarcinoma of lung

Explanation: ***Pancoast lung*** - A **Pancoast tumor** (superior sulcus tumor) is a **non-small cell lung cancer** located at the apex of the lung, typically invading adjacent structures. - This invasion can lead to **Pancoast syndrome**, characterized by **shoulder and arm pain** (due to brachial plexus involvement) and **Horner's syndrome** (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis due to sympathetic chain involvement), often accompanied by rib erosion [1]. *Bronchial carcinoma* - While a Pancoast tumor is a type of **bronchial carcinoma** (lung cancer), this option is too general and doesn't specify the unique apical location and associated neurological symptoms [1]. - Bronchial carcinomas can present with a wide range of symptoms, including cough, hemoptysis, and weight loss, but the specific triad of symptoms described points to a particular subtype. *Lung abscess* - A **lung abscess** is a pus-filled cavity in the lung, usually caused by bacterial infection, and typically presents with fever, cough with purulent sputum, and sometimes pleuritic chest pain. - It does not typically cause **arm pain**, **ptosis**, or **rib erosion** unless there is direct extension from the abscess, which is uncommon and not the primary presentation. *Adenocarcinoma of lung* - **Adenocarcinoma** is a subtype of **non-small cell lung cancer**, but it is generally located in the periphery of the lung and is less likely to present with the classic **Pancoast syndrome** symptoms [1]. - While it can be found in the apex, the specific clinical presentation (arm pain, ptosis, rib erosion) points more strongly to the syndrome that results from apical tumor location rather than just the histological type.

Question 9: Refeeding syndrome seen after enteral or parenteral nutrition is characterized by all EXCEPT:

A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyponatremia (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hyponatremia*** - **Hyponatremia** is not a characteristic feature of refeeding syndrome; rather, fluid retention can sometimes lead to dilutional hyponatremia, but it's not a direct electrolyte shift caused by refeeding. - The core biochemical derangements in refeeding syndrome involve shifts of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate intracellularly [1]. *Hypomagnesemia* - **Hypomagnesemia** is a common and characteristic feature of refeeding syndrome as magnesium is required for ATP generation and cell growth, leading to intracellular shift [1]. - This can contribute to various symptoms such as arrhythmias, weakness, and altered mental status. *Hypocalcemia* - While less direct than other electrolyte disturbances, **hypocalcemia** can occur in refeeding syndrome, partly due to the association with hypophosphatemia and hypomagnesemia. - It may also be exacerbated by vitamin D deficiency or increased parathyroid hormone resistance in malnourished states. *Hypophosphatemia* - **Hypophosphatemia** is the biochemical hallmark of refeeding syndrome, as phosphate is rapidly taken up by cells for ATP synthesis and other metabolic processes during refeeding [1]. - Severe hypophosphatemia can lead to **respiratory failure**, cardiac dysfunction, and rhabdomyolysis.

Question 10: The capillary refill time is prolonged in all types of shock EXCEPT:

A. Septic shock (Correct Answer)
B. Obstructive shock
C. Hypovolaemic shock
D. Cardiogenic shock

Explanation: ***Septic shock*** - In **warmed septic shock**, capillary refill time may be **normal or even brisk** due to peripheral vasodilation caused by inflammatory mediators. - While other forms of shock present with decreased peripheral perfusion and prolonged capillary refill, early septic shock can manifest with a **hyperdynamic circulation**. *Obstructive shock* - This type of shock, often due to conditions like **tension pneumothorax** or **cardiac tamponade**, leads to reduced cardiac output and poor peripheral perfusion. - Reduced peripheral blood flow results in a **prolonged capillary refill time**. *Hypovolemic shock* - Characterized by a significant **loss of circulating blood volume**, leading to reduced cardiac output and vasoconstriction. - This peripheral vasoconstriction directly causes a **prolonged capillary refill time** as blood flow to the capillaries is diminished. *Cardiogenic shock* - Results from **primary heart failure**, leading to decreased cardiac output and systemic hypoperfusion. - The reduced effective circulating volume and compensatory vasoconstriction cause impaired peripheral perfusion, manifesting as a **prolonged capillary refill time**.