UPSC-CMS 2012 — Pathology
2 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Which of the following breast cancers is most often bilateral ?
Which one of the following statements regarding seminoma testis is correct ?
UPSC-CMS 2012 - Pathology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following breast cancers is most often bilateral ?
- A. Lobular carcinoma of the breast (Correct Answer)
- B. Medullary carcinoma of the breast
- C. Ductal carcinoma of the breast
- D. Colloid carcinoma of the breast
Explanation: ***Lobular carcinoma of the breast*** - **Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC)** is the breast cancer subtype most frequently associated with **bilateral disease**, occurring in 5% to 28% of cases. [1] - This higher rate of bilaterality is partly due to the diffuse growth pattern of lobular carcinoma, which can make it more challenging to detect and may lead to synchronous or metachronous involvement of both breasts. [1] *Medullary carcinoma of the breast* - **Medullary carcinoma** is a rare and often well-circumscribed type of breast cancer that typically presents as a solitary mass and is not characteristically bilateral. [1] - It has a generally better prognosis than other invasive ductal carcinomas and is often associated with a BRCA1 mutation. [1] *Ductal carcinoma of the breast* - **Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)**, also known as no special type (NST), is the most common form of breast cancer, but it is less frequently bilateral than lobular carcinoma. [1] - While bilateral IDC can occur, it is a less defining characteristic compared to ILC. *Colloid carcinoma of the breast* - **Colloid (mucinous) carcinoma** is a distinct and relatively rare subtype of invasive ductal carcinoma, characterized by tumor cells floating in pools of mucin. - It usually presents as a solitary mass and is not known for a higher incidence of bilaterality. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 454-456.
Question 2: Which one of the following statements regarding seminoma testis is correct ?
- A. It frequently metastasizes to the liver and bones
- B. Its five-year survival rates approach 50 per cent
- C. It does not respond to radiation
- D. It is the most common type of testicular cancer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***It is the most common type of testicular cancer*** - **Seminoma** accounts for approximately **50% of all germ cell tumors** of the testis, making it the most common type [1]. - It typically affects men between the ages of **30 and 40 years**. *It frequently metastasizes to the liver and bones* - While seminoma can metastasize, its most common sites of spread are the **retroperitoneal lymph nodes** first, then distant sites like the lungs [2]. - Metastasis to the **liver and bones** is less frequent, especially in earlier stages. *Its five-year survival rates approach 50 per cent* - **Seminoma** generally has an **excellent prognosis**, with 5-year survival rates ranging from **95% for localized disease** to about 70-80% for metastatic disease [1]. - A 50% survival rate is significantly lower than actual outcomes for seminoma. *It does not respond to radiation* - **Seminoma is highly radiosensitive**, making radiation therapy a cornerstone of treatment for localized disease and regional lymph node involvement. - This characteristic distinguishes it from non-seminomatous germ cell tumors, which are generally less responsive to radiation. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 979-984. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 510-512.