Biochemistry
2 questionsWhich one of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid ?
Which of the following dietary sources contains the lowest percent of linoleic acid?
UPSC-CMS 2012 - Biochemistry UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Which one of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid ?
- A. Stearic acid
- B. Oleic acid
- C. Linoleic acid (Correct Answer)
- D. Palmitic acid
Explanation: ***Linoleic acid*** - **Linoleic acid** contains **two double bonds** in its carbon chain making it a **polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA)**. - It is an **omega-6 fatty acid**, and an essential fatty acid, meaning it cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained from the diet. *Stearic acid* - **Stearic acid** is a **saturated fatty acid** with no double bonds in its hydrocarbon chain. - Saturated fatty acids are typically solid at room temperature and primarily found in animal fats. *Oleic acid* - **Oleic acid** is a **monounsaturated fatty acid (MUFA)**, meaning it contains only **one double bond** in its carbon chain. - It is an **omega-9 fatty acid**, commonly found in olive oil. *Palmitic acid* - **Palmitic acid** is also a **saturated fatty acid**, similar to stearic acid, with no double bonds. - It is one of the most common saturated fatty acids in animals and plants and is a major component of palm oil.
Question 92: Which of the following dietary sources contains the lowest percent of linoleic acid?
- A. Coconut oil (Correct Answer)
- B. Corn oil
- C. Mustard oil
- D. Groundnut oil
Explanation: ***Coconut oil*** - Coconut oil is primarily composed of **saturated fats**, particularly **lauric acid**, and has a very low percentage of linoleic acid. - Its high saturated fat content distinguishes it from most other vegetable oils, which are generally rich in unsaturated fats. *Corn oil* - Corn oil is a **polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA)**-rich oil, with a significant proportion of **linoleic acid** (an omega-6 fatty acid). - It is often used in cooking for its neutral flavor and high smoke point. *Mustard oil* - Mustard oil contains a substantial amount of **monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFA)**, like **erucic acid**, and also a notable percentage of **linoleic acid**. - Its distinct pungent flavor is popular in certain cuisines. *Groundnut oil* - Groundnut oil, also known as peanut oil, is rich in both **monounsaturated** and **polyunsaturated fatty acids**, including a good percentage of **linoleic acid**. - It is commonly used for frying due to its high smoke point and mild flavor.
Community Medicine
6 questionsWhich of the following specialists is mandatory at a Community Health Centre as per IPHS guidelines?
In a normal curve, how much per cent of the values will be included in the area between two standard deviations on either side of the mean (X ± 2σ) ?
The ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease is called its
The Relative Risk of a disease measures the
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
UPSC-CMS 2012 - Community Medicine UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Which of the following specialists is mandatory at a Community Health Centre as per IPHS guidelines?
- A. Surgery
- B. Paediatrics (Correct Answer)
- C. Obstetrics and Gynaecology
- D. Dermatology and Venereology
Explanation: ***Paediatrics*** - As per **Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS)** guidelines for Community Health Centres (CHCs), a **Paediatrician** is one of the **four mandatory specialists** required at CHCs. - The four mandatory specialists at CHC level are: **Surgeon, Obstetrician-Gynecologist, Physician (General Medicine), and Paediatrician**. - This ensures comprehensive healthcare coverage for the community, including essential pediatric services. *Surgery* - A **Surgeon (General Surgery)** is actually **mandatory** at CHC level as per IPHS guidelines. - This is one of the four required specialist positions at CHCs. - However, in the context of this question (UPSC-CMS 2012), Paediatrics may have been the expected answer among the given options. *Obstetrics and Gynaecology* - An **Obstetrician/Gynecologist** is also **mandatory** at CHC level as per IPHS guidelines. - This specialist is essential for maternal and reproductive health services. - Like Surgery, this is one of the four required specialists at CHCs. *Dermatology and Venereology* - A **Dermatologist/Venereologist** is **not mandatory** as per IPHS guidelines for CHCs. - Dermatology services are typically available at district hospitals or on referral basis. - This is the only option among the four that is not a mandatory specialist position at CHC level.
Question 92: In a normal curve, how much per cent of the values will be included in the area between two standard deviations on either side of the mean (X ± 2σ) ?
- A. 68.3
- B. 90.4
- C. 95.4 (Correct Answer)
- D. 99.7
Explanation: ***Correct: 95.4*** - According to the **empirical rule** (also known as the 68-95-99.7 rule), approximately 95% of data falls within two standard deviations of the mean in a normal distribution. - More precisely, the area between **X ± 2σ** encompasses **95.4%** of the values. - This is a fundamental concept in biostatistics used for calculating confidence intervals and reference ranges. *Incorrect: 68.3* - This percentage represents the proportion of data within **one standard deviation** (X ± 1σ) of the mean in a normal distribution. - It is not the correct value for the range of two standard deviations. *Incorrect: 90.4* - This value does not correspond to any standard interval of standard deviations around the mean in a normal distribution. - It is not part of the empirical rule for common standard deviation ranges. *Incorrect: 99.7* - This percentage represents the proportion of data within **three standard deviations** (X ± 3σ) of the mean in a normal distribution. - It is a larger interval than what is asked in the question (two standard deviations).
Question 93: The ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease is called its
- A. Sensitivity
- B. Positive predictive value
- C. Specificity (Correct Answer)
- D. Negative predictive value
Explanation: ***Specificity*** - **Specificity** is the proportion of **true negatives** correctly identified by the test. - It measures the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who **do not have the disease**. *Sensitivity* - **Sensitivity** is the proportion of **true positives** correctly identified by the test. - It measures the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who **do have the disease**. *Positive predictive value* - **Positive predictive value (PPV)** is the probability that a patient with a **positive test result** actually has the disease. - It depends on the **prevalence** of the disease in the population being tested. *Negative predictive value* - **Negative predictive value (NPV)** is the probability that a patient with a **negative test result** actually does not have the disease. - It also depends on the **prevalence** of the disease in the population.
Question 94: The Relative Risk of a disease measures the
- A. Strength of association between suspected cause and effect (Correct Answer)
- B. Biological plausibility between suspected cause and effect
- C. Temporal relationship between suspected cause and effect
- D. Specificity of association between suspected cause and effect
Explanation: ***Strength of association between suspected cause and effect*** - **Relative Risk (RR)** quantifies how much more likely an exposed group is to develop an outcome compared to an unexposed group, directly indicating the **strength of association**. - An RR of 1 means no association, an RR > 1 suggests increased risk, and an RR < 1 suggests protection, demonstrating the **magnitude of the relationship**. *Biological plausibility between suspected cause and effect* - **Biological plausibility** refers to the coherence of a hypothesis with existing biological and medical knowledge. - While it's a criterion for causal inference, **Relative Risk** itself measures statistical association, not the underlying biological mechanism. *Temporal relationship between suspected cause and effect* - The **temporal relationship** (cause precedes effect) is a crucial criterion for causality but is not directly measured by **Relative Risk**. - **Relative Risk** evaluates risk at a given point or over a period, assuming exposure has already occurred. *Specificity of association between suspected cause and effect* - **Specificity of association** suggests that a single exposure is linked to a single disease, which is rarely true in complex biological systems. - **Relative Risk** quantifies association without implying one-to-one causation or absence of other contributing factors.
Question 95: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
- A. A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1
- B. A→4 B→2 C→3 D→1
- C. A→1 B→2 C→3 D→4
- D. A→4 B→2 C→1 D→3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***A→4 B→2 C→1 D→3*** - This option correctly matches each committee with its primary recommendation contributing to the evolution of healthcare in India. - The **Bhore Committee** recommended **three months' training in PSM for doctors** to address basic healthcare needs, the **Mudaliar Committee** focused on **strengthening district hospitals**, the **Kartar Singh Committee** proposed the development of a **referral services complex**, and the **Srivastava Committee** suggested replacing ANMs with **female health workers**. *A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1* - This option incorrectly associates the **Mudaliar Committee** with replacing ANMs and the **Kartar Singh Committee** with strengthening district hospitals. - While both committees made significant recommendations, their specific focus areas were different from what is listed here. *A→4 B→2 C→3 D→1* - This option incorrectly links the **Kartar Singh Committee** with replacing ANMs and the **Srivastava Committee** with developing a referral services complex. - The **Kartar Singh Committee** focused on providing a comprehensive referral system, while the **Srivastava Committee** emphasized the creation of multi-purpose health workers. *A→1 B→2 C→3 D→4* - This option incorrectly matches the **Bhore Committee** with developing a referral services complex and the **Srivastava Committee** with training in PSM for doctors. - The **Bhore Committee**, formed in the 1940s, had a broader vision for healthcare infrastructure and medical education, while the **Srivastava Committee** focused on health personnel rationalization.
Question 96: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
- A. A→1 B→2 C→4 D→3
- B. A→3 B→2 C→4 D→1
- C. A→3 B→2 C→1 D→4 (Correct Answer)
- D. A→2 B→1 C→3 D→4
Explanation: ***Correct Answer: A→3 B→2 C→1 D→4*** This option correctly matches each vector with its transmitted disease: - **A (Lice) → 3 (Epidemic Typhus fever)** - *Pediculus humanus corporis* transmits *Rickettsia prowazekii* - **B (Fleas) → 2 (Endemic Typhus fever)** - *Xenopsylla cheopis* transmits *Rickettsia typhi* - **C (Ticks) → 1 (Kyasanur Forest Disease)** - *Haemaphysalis* ticks transmit KFD virus - **D (Sand Flies) → 4 (Kala-azar)** - *Phlebotomus* species transmit *Leishmania donovani* Understanding these specific vector-disease pairings is crucial for epidemiology, disease surveillance, and vector control programs in public health. *Incorrect: A→1 B→2 C→4 D→3* - Incorrectly pairs **Lice with Kyasanur Forest Disease** (should be Epidemic Typhus) and **Ticks with Kala-azar** (should be KFD) - KFD is tick-borne, not transmitted by sand flies; Kala-azar is sand fly-borne, not tick-borne *Incorrect: A→3 B→2 C→4 D→1* - Incorrectly pairs **Ticks with Kala-azar** (should be KFD) and **Sand Flies with Kyasanur Forest Disease** (should be Kala-azar) - Reverses the correct tick and sand fly disease associations *Incorrect: A→2 B→1 C→3 D→4* - Multiple errors: **Lice with Endemic Typhus** (should be Epidemic), **Fleas with KFD** (should be Endemic Typhus), and **Ticks with Epidemic Typhus** (should be KFD) - Confuses both typhus types and mismatches the tick-borne disease entirely
Pediatrics
1 questionsIn infants and toddlers, craniotabes is a sign related to the deficiency of
UPSC-CMS 2012 - Pediatrics UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: In infants and toddlers, craniotabes is a sign related to the deficiency of
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Vitamin D (Correct Answer)
- C. Vitamin A
- D. Vitamin C
Explanation: ***Vitamin D (Correct Answer)*** - **Craniotabes** refers to the softening of the cranial bones, characterized by a "ping-pong ball" sensation on palpation. - It is an **early clinical sign of rickets** in infants, which results from **vitamin D deficiency**. - **Vitamin D** is essential for the absorption and metabolism of **calcium and phosphate**, which are critical for proper bone mineralization. - Without adequate vitamin D, bones remain inadequately mineralized, leading to softening. *Vitamin K (Incorrect)* - **Vitamin K** plays a role in **blood coagulation** (clotting factors II, VII, IX, X) and bone metabolism through carboxylation of osteocalcin. - Deficiency manifests primarily as **bleeding disorders** (hemorrhagic disease of newborn), not skeletal abnormalities. - Does not cause craniotabes or bone softening. *Vitamin A (Incorrect)* - **Vitamin A** is essential for **vision** (rhodopsin formation), **immune function**, and **epithelial cell differentiation**. - Deficiency causes **night blindness** (earliest sign), **xerophthalmia**, **Bitot's spots**, and increased susceptibility to infections. - Not associated with skeletal manifestations like craniotabes. *Vitamin C (Incorrect)* - **Vitamin C** (ascorbic acid) is required for **collagen synthesis** (hydroxylation of proline and lysine). - Deficiency causes **scurvy**, characterized by **bleeding gums**, **petechiae**, **subperiosteal hemorrhages**, and impaired wound healing. - While scurvy affects bone matrix and periosteum, it does not cause the characteristic softening of cranial bones seen in craniotabes.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
UPSC-CMS 2012 - Pharmacology UPSC-CMS Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
- A. Salk Vaccine
- B. Yellow Fever Vaccine (Correct Answer)
- C. Hepatitis B vaccine
- D. Rabies Vaccine
Explanation: ***Yellow Fever Vaccine*** - The Yellow Fever vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus that stimulates a strong immune response without causing the disease. - It is highly effective in providing long-lasting immunity against **yellow fever**, a viral hemorrhagic disease transmitted by mosquitoes. *Salk Vaccine* - The Salk vaccine is an **inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)**, meaning it contains killed poliovirus. - It works by stimulating an immune response to the killed virus, but it does not replicate in the host. *Rabies vaccine* - The rabies vaccine is an **inactivated vaccine** prepared from killed rabies virus. - It provides protection by inducing antibodies against the rabies virus glycoprotein. *Hepatitis B vaccine* - The Hepatitis B vaccine is a **recombinant vaccine**, meaning it is produced using genetic engineering techniques to synthesize hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). - It does not contain live or killed virus but rather a purified viral protein to stimulate immunity.