UPSC-CMS 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which one of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid ?

Linoleic acid. ***Linoleic acid*** - **Linoleic acid** contains **two double bonds** in its carbon chain making it a **polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA)**. - It is an **omega-6 fatty acid**, and an essential fatty acid, meaning it cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained from the diet. *Stearic acid* - **Stearic acid** is a **saturated fatty acid** with no double bonds in its hydrocarbon chain. - Saturated fatty acids are typically solid at room temperature and primarily found in animal fats. *Oleic acid* - **Oleic acid** is a **monounsaturated fatty acid (MUFA)**, meaning it contains only **one double bond** in its carbon chain. - It is an **omega-9 fatty acid**, commonly found in olive oil. *Palmitic acid* - **Palmitic acid** is also a **saturated fatty acid**, similar to stearic acid, with no double bonds. - It is one of the most common saturated fatty acids in animals and plants and is a major component of palm oil.

Q: Which of the following dietary sources contains the lowest percent of linoleic acid?

Coconut oil. ***Coconut oil*** - Coconut oil is primarily composed of **saturated fats**, particularly **lauric acid**, and has a very low percentage of linoleic acid. - Its high saturated fat content distinguishes it from most other vegetable oils, which are generally rich in unsaturated fats. *Corn oil* - Corn oil is a **polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA)**-rich oil, with a significant proportion of **linoleic acid** (an omega-6 fatty acid). - It is often used in cooking for its neutral flavor and high smoke point. *Mustard oil* - Mustard oil contains a substantial amount of **monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFA)**, like **erucic acid**, and also a notable percentage of **linoleic acid**. - Its distinct pungent flavor is popular in certain cuisines. *Groundnut oil* - Groundnut oil, also known as peanut oil, is rich in both **monounsaturated** and **polyunsaturated fatty acids**, including a good percentage of **linoleic acid**. - It is commonly used for frying due to its high smoke point and mild flavor.

Q: Which of the following specialists is mandatory at a Community Health Centre as per IPHS guidelines?

Paediatrics. ***Paediatrics*** - As per **Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS)** guidelines for Community Health Centres (CHCs), a **Paediatrician** is one of the **four mandatory specialists** required at CHCs. - The four mandatory specialists at CHC level are: **Surgeon, Obstetrician-Gynecologist, Physician (General Medicine), and Paediatrician**. - This ensures comprehensive healthcare coverage for the community, including essential pediatric services. *Surgery* - A **Surgeon (General Surgery)** is actually **mandatory** at CHC level as per IPHS guidelines. - This is one of the four required specialist positions at CHCs. - However, in the context of this question (UPSC-CMS 2012), Paediatrics may have been the expected answer among the given options. *Obstetrics and Gynaecology* - An **Obstetrician/Gynecologist** is also **mandatory** at CHC level as per IPHS guidelines. - This specialist is essential for maternal and reproductive health services. - Like Surgery, this is one of the four required specialists at CHCs. *Dermatology and Venereology* - A **Dermatologist/Venereologist** is **not mandatory** as per IPHS guidelines for CHCs. - Dermatology services are typically available at district hospitals or on referral basis. - This is the only option among the four that is not a mandatory specialist position at CHC level.

Q: In a normal curve, how much per cent of the values will be included in the area between two standard deviations on either side of the mean (X ± 2σ) ?

95.4. ***Correct: 95.4*** - According to the **empirical rule** (also known as the 68-95-99.7 rule), approximately 95% of data falls within two standard deviations of the mean in a normal distribution. - More precisely, the area between **X ± 2σ** encompasses **95.4%** of the values. - This is a fundamental concept in biostatistics used for calculating confidence intervals and reference ranges. *Incorrect: 68.3* - This percentage represents the proportion of data within **one standard deviation** (X ± 1σ) of the mean in a normal distribution. - It is not the correct value for the range of two standard deviations. *Incorrect: 90.4* - This value does not correspond to any standard interval of standard deviations around the mean in a normal distribution. - It is not part of the empirical rule for common standard deviation ranges. *Incorrect: 99.7* - This percentage represents the proportion of data within **three standard deviations** (X ± 3σ) of the mean in a normal distribution. - It is a larger interval than what is asked in the question (two standard deviations).

Q: The ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease is called its

Specificity. ***Specificity*** - **Specificity** is the proportion of **true negatives** correctly identified by the test. - It measures the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who **do not have the disease**. *Sensitivity* - **Sensitivity** is the proportion of **true positives** correctly identified by the test. - It measures the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who **do have the disease**. *Positive predictive value* - **Positive predictive value (PPV)** is the probability that a patient with a **positive test result** actually has the disease. - It depends on the **prevalence** of the disease in the population being tested. *Negative predictive value* - **Negative predictive value (NPV)** is the probability that a patient with a **negative test result** actually does not have the disease. - It also depends on the **prevalence** of the disease in the population.

Q: The Relative Risk of a disease measures the

Strength of association between suspected cause and effect. ***Strength of association between suspected cause and effect*** - **Relative Risk (RR)** quantifies how much more likely an exposed group is to develop an outcome compared to an unexposed group, directly indicating the **strength of association**. - An RR of 1 means no association, an RR > 1 suggests increased risk, and an RR < 1 suggests protection, demonstrating the **magnitude of the relationship**. *Biological plausibility between suspected cause and effect* - **Biological plausibility** refers to the coherence of a hypothesis with existing biological and medical knowledge. - While it's a criterion for causal inference, **Relative Risk** itself measures statistical association, not the underlying biological mechanism. *Temporal relationship between suspected cause and effect* - The **temporal relationship** (cause precedes effect) is a crucial criterion for causality but is not directly measured by **Relative Risk**. - **Relative Risk** evaluates risk at a given point or over a period, assuming exposure has already occurred. *Specificity of association between suspected cause and effect* - **Specificity of association** suggests that a single exposure is linked to a single disease, which is rarely true in complex biological systems. - **Relative Risk** quantifies association without implying one-to-one causation or absence of other contributing factors.

Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

A→4 B→2 C→1 D→3. ***A→4 B→2 C→1 D→3*** - This option correctly matches each committee with its primary recommendation contributing to the evolution of healthcare in India. - The **Bhore Committee** recommended **three months' training in PSM for doctors** to address basic healthcare needs, the **Mudaliar Committee** focused on **strengthening district hospitals**, the **Kartar Singh Committee** proposed the development of a **referral services complex**, and the **Srivastava Committee** suggested replacing ANMs with **female health workers**. *A→4 B→3 C→2 D→1* - This option incorrectly associates the **Mudaliar Committee** with replacing ANMs and the **Kartar Singh Committee** with strengthening district hospitals. - While both committees made significant recommendations, their specific focus areas were different from what is listed here. *A→4 B→2 C→3 D→1* - This option incorrectly links the **Kartar Singh Committee** with replacing ANMs and the **Srivastava Committee** with developing a referral services complex. - The **Kartar Singh Committee** focused on providing a comprehensive referral system, while the **Srivastava Committee** emphasized the creation of multi-purpose health workers. *A→1 B→2 C→3 D→4* - This option incorrectly matches the **Bhore Committee** with developing a referral services complex and the **Srivastava Committee** with training in PSM for doctors. - The **Bhore Committee**, formed in the 1940s, had a broader vision for healthcare infrastructure and medical education, while the **Srivastava Committee** focused on health personnel rationalization.

Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

A→3 B→2 C→1 D→4. ***Correct Answer: A→3 B→2 C→1 D→4*** This option correctly matches each vector with its transmitted disease: - **A (Lice) → 3 (Epidemic Typhus fever)** - *Pediculus humanus corporis* transmits *Rickettsia prowazekii* - **B (Fleas) → 2 (Endemic Typhus fever)** - *Xenopsylla cheopis* transmits *Rickettsia typhi* - **C (Ticks) → 1 (Kyasanur Forest Disease)** - *Haemaphysalis* ticks transmit KFD virus - **D (Sand Flies) → 4 (Kala-azar)** - *Phlebotomus* species transmit *Leishmania donovani* Understanding these specific vector-disease pairings is crucial for epidemiology, disease surveillance, and vector control programs in public health. *Incorrect: A→1 B→2 C→4 D→3* - Incorrectly pairs **Lice with Kyasanur Forest Disease** (should be Epidemic Typhus) and **Ticks with Kala-azar** (should be KFD) - KFD is tick-borne, not transmitted by sand flies; Kala-azar is sand fly-borne, not tick-borne *Incorrect: A→3 B→2 C→4 D→1* - Incorrectly pairs **Ticks with Kala-azar** (should be KFD) and **Sand Flies with Kyasanur Forest Disease** (should be Kala-azar) - Reverses the correct tick and sand fly disease associations *Incorrect: A→2 B→1 C→3 D→4* - Multiple errors: **Lice with Endemic Typhus** (should be Epidemic), **Fleas with KFD** (should be Endemic Typhus), and **Ticks with Epidemic Typhus** (should be KFD) - Confuses both typhus types and mismatches the tick-borne disease entirely

Q: In infants and toddlers, craniotabes is a sign related to the deficiency of

Vitamin D. ***Vitamin D (Correct Answer)*** - **Craniotabes** refers to the softening of the cranial bones, characterized by a "ping-pong ball" sensation on palpation. - It is an **early clinical sign of rickets** in infants, which results from **vitamin D deficiency**. - **Vitamin D** is essential for the absorption and metabolism of **calcium and phosphate**, which are critical for proper bone mineralization. - Without adequate vitamin D, bones remain inadequately mineralized, leading to softening. *Vitamin K (Incorrect)* - **Vitamin K** plays a role in **blood coagulation** (clotting factors II, VII, IX, X) and bone metabolism through carboxylation of osteocalcin. - Deficiency manifests primarily as **bleeding disorders** (hemorrhagic disease of newborn), not skeletal abnormalities. - Does not cause craniotabes or bone softening. *Vitamin A (Incorrect)* - **Vitamin A** is essential for **vision** (rhodopsin formation), **immune function**, and **epithelial cell differentiation**. - Deficiency causes **night blindness** (earliest sign), **xerophthalmia**, **Bitot's spots**, and increased susceptibility to infections. - Not associated with skeletal manifestations like craniotabes. *Vitamin C (Incorrect)* - **Vitamin C** (ascorbic acid) is required for **collagen synthesis** (hydroxylation of proline and lysine). - Deficiency causes **scurvy**, characterized by **bleeding gums**, **petechiae**, **subperiosteal hemorrhages**, and impaired wound healing. - While scurvy affects bone matrix and periosteum, it does not cause the characteristic softening of cranial bones seen in craniotabes.

Q: Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

Yellow Fever Vaccine. ***Yellow Fever Vaccine*** - The Yellow Fever vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus that stimulates a strong immune response without causing the disease. - It is highly effective in providing long-lasting immunity against **yellow fever**, a viral hemorrhagic disease transmitted by mosquitoes. *Salk Vaccine* - The Salk vaccine is an **inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)**, meaning it contains killed poliovirus. - It works by stimulating an immune response to the killed virus, but it does not replicate in the host. *Rabies vaccine* - The rabies vaccine is an **inactivated vaccine** prepared from killed rabies virus. - It provides protection by inducing antibodies against the rabies virus glycoprotein. *Hepatitis B vaccine* - The Hepatitis B vaccine is a **recombinant vaccine**, meaning it is produced using genetic engineering techniques to synthesize hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). - It does not contain live or killed virus but rather a purified viral protein to stimulate immunity.

Question 1

Which one of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid ?

Accepted Answer

Linoleic acid

Answer

Stearic acid

Answer

Oleic acid

Answer

Palmitic acid

Question 2

Which of the following dietary sources contains the lowest percent of linoleic acid?

Accepted Answer

Coconut oil

Answer

Corn oil

Answer

Mustard oil

Answer

Groundnut oil

Question 3

Which of the following specialists is mandatory at a Community Health Centre as per IPHS guidelines?

Accepted Answer

Paediatrics

Answer

Surgery

Answer

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Answer

Dermatology and Venereology

Question 4

In a normal curve, how much per cent of the values will be included in the area between two standard deviations on either side of the mean (X ± 2σ) ?

Accepted Answer

95.4

Answer

68.3

Answer

90.4

Answer

99.7

Question 5

The ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease is called its

Accepted Answer

Specificity

Answer

Sensitivity

Answer

Positive predictive value

Answer

Negative predictive value

Question 6

The Relative Risk of a disease measures the

Accepted Answer

Strength of association between suspected cause and effect

Answer

Biological plausibility between suspected cause and effect

Answer

Temporal relationship between suspected cause and effect

Answer

Specificity of association between suspected cause and effect

Question 7

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A→4  B→2  C→1  D→3

Answer

A→4  B→3  C→2  D→1

Answer

A→4  B→2  C→3  D→1

Answer

A→1  B→2  C→3  D→4

Question 8

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A→3  B→2  C→1  D→4

Answer

A→1  B→2  C→4  D→3

Answer

A→3  B→2  C→4  D→1

Answer

A→2  B→1  C→3  D→4

Question 9

In infants and toddlers, craniotabes is a sign related to the deficiency of

Accepted Answer

Vitamin D

Answer

Vitamin K

Answer

Vitamin A

Answer

Vitamin C

Question 10

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Yellow Fever Vaccine

Answer

Salk Vaccine

Answer

Hepatitis B vaccine

Answer

Rabies Vaccine

UPSC-CMS 2012

Biochemistry

Community Medicine

Pediatrics

Pharmacology