UPSC-CMS 2010 Practice Questions

Q: Before puberty, what is the ratio between the cervical length and uterine body?

2 : 1. **2:1 (Correct Answer)** - Before puberty, the **cervix** is proportionally much longer than the **uterine body**, with a typical ratio of 2:1 (cervix:body) [1]. - This anatomical ratio changes significantly after puberty due to hormonal influences causing the uterine body to grow more rapidly. *1:2 (Incorrect)* - This ratio of 1:2, where the uterine body is longer than the cervix, is characteristic of the **post-pubertal** and **reproductive years** [1]. - It reflects the increased growth and development of the uterine corpus under the influence of hormones like **estrogen**. *1:3 (Incorrect)* - This ratio is not typical at any stage of uterine development, as the uterine body generally does not become three times the length of the cervix. - It represents an **unusual disproportion** in uterine-cervical length. *1:4 (Incorrect)* - This ratio is also not a standard physiological proportion for uterine-cervical length at any developmental stage. - Such an extreme disproportion would likely indicate an **anomalous uterine development**.

Q: Asymptomatic endometrial tuberculosis leading to infertility is categorized in which diagnostic category of DOTS?

Category III. ***Category III*** - Category III of the DOTS classification includes **newly diagnosed pulmonary smear-negative** and all forms of **extra-pulmonary tuberculosis**, provided they are not severe. - Endometrial tuberculosis, leading to infertility, is an **extra-pulmonary site** and is generally considered less severe compared to disseminated forms, thus falling into Category III. *Category II* - Category II is reserved for **previously treated cases** of tuberculosis, including relapse, treatment failure, or return after default. - This patient is described as having **asymptomatic** endometrial tuberculosis, implying a new diagnosis, not a retreatment case. *Category IV* - Category IV is used for cases of **chronic tuberculosis**, where the patient remains smear-positive after completing a retreatment regimen, often indicating drug-resistant TB. - This scenario describes a new diagnosis of extra-pulmonary TB, with no mention of prior treatment failures or chronic infection. *Category I* - Category I applies to **newly diagnosed pulmonary smear-positive** tuberculosis cases and severe forms of extra-pulmonary tuberculosis. - Asymptomatic endometrial tuberculosis, in this context, is neither pulmonary smear-positive nor typically considered a severe or life-threatening form of extra-pulmonary TB.

Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

A→3 B→1 C→2 D→4. ***A→3 B→1 C→2 D→4*** - This option correctly matches each pelvic floor abnormality description with its corresponding condition. - **Cystocele** involves the descent of the bladder into the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall, **Urethrocele** describes the descent of the urethra into the lower one-third of the anterior vaginal wall, **Enterocele** refers to the descent of small bowel into the upper one-third of the posterior vaginal wall, and **Rectocele** involves the descent of the rectum into the lower one-third of the posterior vaginal wall. *A→4 B→1 C→2 D→3* - This option incorrectly matches the descent of the upper 2/3 of the anterior vaginal wall with a **rectocele** and the descent of the upper 1/3 of the posterior vaginal wall with a **cystocele**. - A **rectocele** involves the posterior vaginal wall, not the anterior, and a **cystocele** involves the anterior vaginal wall, not the posterior. *A→4 B→2 C→1 D→3* - This option incorrectly matches the descent of the upper 2/3 of the anterior vaginal wall with a **rectocele** and misidentifies other associations. - The pattern of descent and wall involvement for **urethrocele**, **enterocele**, and **cystocele** is not consistently maintained here according to the definitions. *A→3 B→2 C→1 D→4* - This option incorrectly associates the descent of the lower 1/3 of the anterior vaginal wall with an **enterocele**, and the descent of the upper 1/3 of the posterior vaginal wall with a **urethrocele**. - An **enterocele** involves the small bowel protruding into the posterior vaginal wall, and a **urethrocele** involves the urethra descending into the anterior vaginal wall.

Q: In a lady with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle, what is the 'safe period'?

First and last seven days. ***First and last seven days*** - In a typical 28-day cycle, **ovulation** usually occurs around day 14. Sperm can survive for up to 5 days, and the egg is viable for about 24 hours. Therefore, avoiding unprotected intercourse from approximately day 7 to day 19 would be considered within the fertile window. The "safe period" refers to days with a lower probability of conception. - The **first seven days** (including menstruation) and the **last seven days** (preceding the next menstrual period) are generally considered the least fertile times, as they are furthest from ovulation. *Initial 14 days* - This period includes the follicular phase, leading up to and including **ovulation**. - The **fertile window** typically encompasses several days before ovulation, the day of ovulation, and the day after, making the initial 14 days a high-risk period, not a safe one. *Later 14 days* - This period includes the **luteal phase** after ovulation has occurred. - While the latter part of this period (days 21-28) is generally less fertile, the days immediately following ovulation (around days 15-18) still carry a risk of conception if the egg is viable or if ovulation was delayed. *First seven days only* - While the first seven days are generally considered a **low-risk period**, relying solely on this neglects the increased risk shortly before and during ovulation. - This option only covers a portion of the "safe period" and does not account for the reduced fertility towards the end of the menstrual cycle.

Q: The risk of progression to endometrial cancer from simple hyperplasia without atypia is

1%. ***1%*** - The risk of **simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia** progressing to endometrial cancer is very low, typically cited as less than 1%. - This low risk is why conservative management and surveillance are often sufficient for this type of hyperplasia. *8-10%* - This percentage is more indicative of the risk of progression for **complex endometrial hyperplasia without atypia**, which has a higher propensity for malignant transformation. - Simple hyperplasia without atypia carries a much lower risk due to its less abnormal glandular architecture and lack of cytologic atypia. *25-30%* - This value represents the risk of progression for **atypical endometrial hyperplasia (endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia)**, which is considered a precursor lesion to endometrial cancer. - The presence of **cytological atypia** significantly increases the risk of malignant transformation. *3-5%* - This risk range is typically associated with **complex endometrial hyperplasia without atypia**, which is higher than simple hyperplasia but considerably lower than atypical hyperplasia. - While it has abnormal architectural features, the absence of **cellular atypia** keeps the risk below that of atypical lesions.

Q: Worldwide, which is the most commonly used copper-bearing intrauterine contraceptive device?

Copper T-380. ***Copper T-380*** - The **Copper T-380A (ParaGard)** is the most widely used and effective non-hormonal IUD globally. - Its **380 mm² copper surface area** provides high contraceptive efficacy for up to 10 years. *Copper-7* - This was an earlier generation copper IUD with a **smaller copper surface area** and a distinct 7-shaped design. - It had a higher expulsion rate and was **largely replaced** by more effective T-shaped devices. *GyneFix* - **GyneFix** is a frameless copper IUD consisting of copper sleeves on a surgical thread, which is knotted into the uterine fundus. - While effective, its market penetration and global usage are **significantly less** compared to the Copper T-380. *Copper T-200* - The **Copper T-200** was an earlier T-shaped copper IUD with **200 mm² of copper surface area**. - It had a **shorter lifespan** and lower efficacy compared to the T-380, leading to its obsolescence in many regions.

Q: The following are the contra-indications to the use of combined oral contraceptive pills, except

bronchial asthma. ***bronchial asthma*** - **Bronchial asthma** is not a contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs). COCs do not worsen asthma symptoms or increase the risk of asthma exacerbations. - While some medications can interact with asthma treatment, COCs generally have no significant adverse effects on respiratory function or asthma management. *active viral hepatitis* - **Active viral hepatitis** is a contraindication because COCs are metabolized in the liver, and their use could further impair liver function in a patient with active inflammation. - The liver is crucial for metabolizing estrogens and progestins, and compromised liver function can lead to altered drug levels and increased risk of adverse effects. *history of deep venous thrombosis* - A **history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT)** is a significant contraindication due to the increased risk of **thromboembolism** associated with combined oral contraceptive pills. - Estrogen components in COCs can increase the synthesis of clotting factors and decrease natural anticoagulants, raising the risk of future thrombotic events. *breastfeeding* - **Breastfeeding**, especially during the first six weeks postpartum, is a relative contraindication for combined oral contraceptive pills. - Estrogen in COCs can reduce milk supply and potentially pass into breast milk, affecting the infant. Progestin-only contraceptives are generally preferred for breastfeeding mothers.

Q: Mini pill should be started on the

first day of the cycle. ***first day of the cycle*** - Starting the **mini-pill** (progestin-only pill) on the **first day of the menstrual cycle** ensures **immediate contraceptive protection** without need for backup contraception. - Current guidelines allow starting within the **first 5 days of the cycle** for immediate protection, but day 1 is the most conservative and traditional recommendation. - The mini-pill works primarily through **cervical mucus thickening** (which occurs within 48 hours) and may inconsistently suppress ovulation in some women. *fifth day of the cycle* - Starting on the fifth day of the cycle **can still provide immediate protection** according to current guidelines, as it falls within the acceptable first 5-day window. - However, for maximum certainty and following traditional teaching, day 1 remains the preferred recommendation. - If started after day 5, **backup contraception for 48 hours** would be needed. *second day of the cycle* - Starting on the second day falls within the **first 5 days of the cycle** and provides immediate contraceptive protection according to current evidence-based guidelines. - The **first day** is traditionally emphasized in older guidelines and remains the most conservative approach. - No backup contraception needed when started within this timeframe. *third day of the cycle* - Starting on the third day is within the **first 5-day window** where immediate protection is achieved. - However, traditional teaching (especially relevant for this 2010 exam question) emphasized starting on **day 1** for optimal compliance and immediate efficacy. - Modern guidelines confirm no backup needed if started within first 5 days of true menstrual bleeding.

Q: Which tumour marker is most often elevated in ovarian granulosa cell tumour?

Inhibin. ***Inhibin*** - **Inhibin** is a polypeptide hormone produced by granulosa cells, making it a highly specific and sensitive marker for **granulosa cell tumors** of the ovary [1]. - Its levels correlate with tumor burden and can be used for monitoring treatment response and detecting recurrence [1]. *Alpha fetoprotein* - **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is a tumor marker more commonly associated with **yolk sac tumors (endodermal sinus tumors)**, which are a type of germ cell tumor, not granulosa cell tumors. - Elevated AFP can also be seen in hepatocellular carcinoma and some testicular tumors. *CA 125* - **CA 125** is the most widely used tumor marker for **epithelial ovarian cancer**, which is the most common type of ovarian cancer. - While it can be mildly elevated in other conditions, it is not specifically elevated in granulosa cell tumors. *Beta-HCG* - **Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG)** is primarily elevated in **gestational trophoblastic disease** (e.g., choriocarcinoma) and some germ cell tumors, such as dysgerminomas and embryonal carcinomas, if they have syncytiotrophoblastic elements [2]. - It is not a typical marker for granulosa cell tumors. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1036-1037. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1034-1036.

Q: The mechanism of action by which clomiphene citrate induces ovulation is

through its anti-estrogenic effect. ***Correct: Through its anti-estrogenic effect*** - **Clomiphene citrate** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that acts as an **estrogen antagonist** at the hypothalamus and pituitary gland - By blocking estrogen receptors, it prevents the hypothalamus from sensing circulating estrogen, thereby removing the **negative feedback** normally exerted by estrogen - This perceived low estrogen state triggers increased **GnRH secretion**, leading to elevated **FSH and LH release**, which stimulates follicular development and ovulation *Incorrect: Through the hypothalamic estrogenic effect* - Clomiphene citrate is an **anti-estrogen**, not an estrogen agonist at the hypothalamic level - An estrogenic effect would **enhance negative feedback**, inhibiting GnRH and gonadotropin release, thereby **suppressing** rather than inducing ovulation *Incorrect: Through negative feedback on gonadotrophins* - This is the opposite of clomiphene's mechanism - Clomiphene works by **blocking negative feedback**, not establishing it - By antagonizing estrogen receptors, it tricks the hypothalamus into perceiving low estrogen levels, leading to **increased** (not decreased) gonadotropin release *Incorrect: Through positive feedback on gonadotrophins* - While clomiphene ultimately results in increased gonadotropin release, it does so by **disrupting negative feedback**, not by directly creating positive feedback - True positive feedback occurs naturally during the late follicular phase when sustained high estrogen levels trigger the LH surge - Clomiphene's mechanism is distinct—it removes the brake (negative feedback) rather than adding an accelerator (positive feedback)

Question 1

Before puberty, what is the ratio between the cervical length and uterine body?

Accepted Answer

2 : 1

Answer

1 : 2

Answer

1 : 3

Answer

1 : 4

Question 2

Asymptomatic endometrial tuberculosis leading to infertility is categorized in which diagnostic category of DOTS?

Accepted Answer

Category III

Answer

Category II

Answer

Category IV

Answer

Category I

Question 3

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A→3  B→1  C→2  D→4

Answer

A→4  B→1  C→2  D→3

Answer

A→4  B→2  C→1  D→3

Answer

A→3  B→2  C→1  D→4

Question 4

In a lady with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle, what is the 'safe period'?

Accepted Answer

First and last seven days

Answer

Initial 14 days

Answer

Later 14 days

Answer

First seven days only

Question 5

The risk of progression to endometrial cancer from simple hyperplasia without atypia is

Accepted Answer

1%

Answer

8-10%

Answer

25-30%

Answer

3-5%

Question 6

Worldwide, which is the most commonly used copper-bearing intrauterine contraceptive device?

Accepted Answer

Copper T-380

Answer

Copper-7

Answer

GyneFix

Answer

Copper T-200

Question 7

The following are the contra-indications to the use of combined oral contraceptive pills, except

Accepted Answer

bronchial asthma

Answer

active viral hepatitis

Answer

history of deep venous thrombosis

Answer

breastfeeding

Question 8

Mini pill should be started on the

Accepted Answer

first day of the cycle

Answer

fifth day of the cycle

Answer

second day of the cycle

Answer

third day of the cycle

Question 9

Which tumour marker is most often elevated in ovarian granulosa cell tumour?

Accepted Answer

Inhibin

Answer

Alpha fetoprotein

Answer

CA 125

Answer

Beta-HCG

Question 10

The mechanism of action by which clomiphene citrate induces ovulation is

Accepted Answer

through its anti-estrogenic effect

Answer

through the hypothalamic estrogenic effect

Answer

through negative feedback on gonadotrophins

Answer

through positive feedback on gonadotrophins

UPSC-CMS 2010

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Pharmacology