Dermatology
1 questionsA child presents with a rash in the neck folds as shown in the image. The area appears erythematous with satellite lesions and maceration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2019 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: A child presents with a rash in the neck folds as shown in the image. The area appears erythematous with satellite lesions and maceration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Intertrigo (Correct Answer)
- B. Heat rash
- C. Eczema
- D. Impetigo
Explanation: ***Intertrigo*** - The image shows a reddened, inflamed rash in skin folds (neck creases), which is characteristic of **intertrigo**. This condition results from skin-on-skin friction, moisture, and warmth. - The rash appears to have satellite lesions and a somewhat macerated appearance, which would be consistent with secondary fungal (e.g., Candida) or bacterial infection, common complications of intertrigo. *Heat rash* - **Heat rash (miliaria)** typically presents as small, itchy red bumps or clear blisters, often found in areas prone to sweating. - While it can occur in skin folds, the diffuse, raw-looking erythema and presence of potential satellite lesions shown in the image are less typical for simple heat rash. *Eczema* - **Eczema (atopic dermatitis)** is characterized by dry, itchy, inflamed skin, often with scaling, crusting, or lichenification during chronic stages. - While eczema can affect skin folds, the appearance in the image (intense redness, maceration, potential satellite lesions) is more suggestive of an irritant or infectious process like intertrigo rather than typical eczema. *Impetigo* - **Impetigo** is a bacterial skin infection characterized by honey-colored crusts, vesicles, or bullae, typically appearing anywhere on the body, especially around the nose and mouth. - The rash in the image lacks the characteristic honey-colored crusts or vesiculobullous lesions associated with impetigo.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsWhich type of cardiomyopathy is associated with alcohol abuse?
A female patient of 26 years, presents with oral ulcers, photosensitivity and skin malar rash in face sparing the nasolabial folds of both side.
NEET-PG 2019 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which type of cardiomyopathy is associated with alcohol abuse?
- A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy (Correct Answer)
- C. Pericarditis
- D. Myocarditis
Explanation: ### Dilated cardiomyopathy - Chronic **alcohol abuse** is a well-established cause of **dilated cardiomyopathy**, leading to weakening and enlargement of the ventricles [1]. - This condition results in impaired systolic function and can cause **heart failure** [1]. *Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy* - This condition is primarily characterized by **pathological thickening of the heart muscle**, often genetic, and is not directly caused by alcohol abuse. - It leads to issues with relaxation and filling of the heart, rather than dilation and weakness. *Pericarditis* - **Pericarditis** is the inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart (pericardium), most commonly caused by viral infections, autoimmune diseases, or injury. - It is not directly linked to alcohol abuse as a primary cause. *Myocarditis* - **Myocarditis** is the inflammation of the heart muscle, often triggered by viral infections, autoimmune reactions, or certain medications. - While heavy alcohol use can weaken the heart, myocarditis is primarily an inflammatory process not directly caused by alcohol.
Question 52: A female patient of 26 years, presents with oral ulcers, photosensitivity and skin malar rash in face sparing the nasolabial folds of both side.
- A. Sturge weber syndrome
- B. Dermatitis
- C. Psoriasis
- D. SLE (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***SLE*** - The combination of **oral ulcers**, **photosensitivity**, and a **malar rash** that spares the nasolabial folds is highly characteristic of **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** [1]. - SLE is an autoimmune disease with diverse clinical manifestations involving multiple organ systems. *Sturge weber syndrome* - This is a neurocutaneous disorder characterized by a **port-wine stain** (nevus flammeus) typically on the face, neurological abnormalities like seizures, and ocular involvement. - It does not present with oral ulcers or photosensitivity as primary features. *Dermatitis* - **Dermatitis** is a general term for skin inflammation, often presenting with redness, itching, and sometimes blisters. - It does not typically involve the specific constellation of oral ulcers, photosensitivity, and a malar rash that spares nasolabial folds. *Psoriasis* - **Psoriasis** is a chronic autoimmune disease primarily affecting the skin, characterized by red, scaly patches (plaques) [2]. - While it can cause nail changes and sometimes joint pain, it does not present with photosensitivity, oral ulcers, or the characteristic malar rash described.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsThe major contributor to amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:
NEET-PG 2019 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: The major contributor to amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:
- A. Fetal urine (Correct Answer)
- B. Fetal skin
- C. Ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma
- D. Fluid from fetal lungs
Explanation: ***Fetal urine*** - After **20 weeks of gestation**, the **fetal kidneys** are fully functional, and fetal urination becomes the primary source of amniotic fluid. - This contribution is crucial for the **volume of amniotic fluid** and plays a vital role in **fetal lung development** by allowing the fetus to "breathe" the fluid. *Ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma* - While an ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma contributes to the early amniotic fluid volume, its significance diminishes as the **fetal kidneys mature** past 20 weeks. - This source primarily provides water and dissolved solutes, but not a substantial volume. *Fluid from fetal lungs* - Fluid produced by the fetal lungs also contributes to amniotic fluid, but its volume is considerably smaller than that from **fetal urine**, especially after 20 weeks. - It mainly includes pulmonary surfactants and other specific proteins important for lung maturation. *Fetal skin* - Before **keratinization** of the fetal skin (around 20-22 weeks), the skin is permeable and allows for transepidermal fluid transport, contributing to amniotic fluid. - However, once **keratinization** is complete, the skin becomes impermeable, and its contribution to amniotic fluid becomes negligible.
Pediatrics
1 questionsWhich viral infection is known to cause a condition resembling erythroblastosis?
NEET-PG 2019 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which viral infection is known to cause a condition resembling erythroblastosis?
- A. EBV
- B. CMV
- C. Parvovirus B19 (Correct Answer)
- D. HSV
Explanation: ***Parvovirus B19*** - **Parvovirus B19** has a specific tropism for **erythroid progenitor cells** in the bone marrow. - In the fetus, congenital infection causes **severe anemia** due to destruction of red blood cell precursors, leading to **hydrops fetalis** with massive compensatory erythropoiesis. - This results in circulating **nucleated red blood cells (erythroblasts)**, hepatosplenomegaly from extramedullary hematopoiesis, and severe anemia - a picture closely **resembling erythroblastosis fetalis**. - Unlike the immune-mediated hemolysis in Rh isoimmunization, parvovirus causes direct viral destruction of erythroid precursors with similar clinical manifestations. *CMV* - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** is the most common congenital infection and can cause hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and thrombocytopenia. - However, CMV typically causes **direct hyperbilirubinemia** from hepatocellular damage rather than the hemolytic anemia pattern seen in erythroblastosis. - While CMV can affect hematopoiesis, it does not characteristically produce the massive erythroblast response and hydrops pattern typical of erythroblastosis fetalis. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** primarily causes **infectious mononucleosis** in older children and adults, with atypical lymphocytosis. - EBV is rare in neonates and does not cause fetal hydrops or an erythroblastosis-like syndrome. - Associated with lymphoproliferative disorders and post-transplant complications rather than fetal anemia. *HSV* - **Herpes simplex virus (HSV)** causes disseminated neonatal infection with encephalitis, hepatitis, and mucocutaneous lesions. - HSV does not have tropism for erythroid precursors and does not cause the anemia, hydrops, or erythroblastosis-like picture. - Typically acquired perinatally rather than causing congenital infection with hematologic manifestations.
Pharmacology
3 questionsWhat is the drug of choice for treating tachycardia induced by digitalis?
Variation in sensitivity of response to different doses of a drug in different individuals is obtained from?
Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir?
NEET-PG 2019 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: What is the drug of choice for treating tachycardia induced by digitalis?
- A. Phenytoin (Correct Answer)
- B. Lidocaine
- C. Reducing the dosage of digoxin
- D. Verapamil
Explanation: ***Phenytoin*** - Phenytoin is the traditional drug of choice for **digitalis-induced tachyarrhythmias** as it blocks **sodium channels**, suppresses **automaticity**, and uniquely improves **AV conduction**. - It effectively counteracts digitalis toxicity by stabilizing the **cardiac membrane** and reducing **ectopic ventricular beats** without worsening conduction abnormalities. *Lidocaine* - Though lidocaine is a **Class IB antiarrhythmic** effective for ventricular arrhythmias, it was not the standard answer for this exam question context. - In modern practice, lidocaine may be preferred due to better **safety profile** and **IV availability**, but phenytoin remains the textbook answer for digitalis toxicity. *Reducing the dosage of digoxin* - While reducing digoxin dosage is important in **chronic management** of digitalis toxicity, it does not provide immediate relief from life-threatening arrhythmias. - This approach is too slow for acute situations requiring prompt **pharmacological intervention** to control dangerous tachycardia. *Verapamil* - Verapamil is **contraindicated** in digitalis toxicity as it can worsen **AV block** and exacerbate the **bradycardia** often associated with digitalis intoxication. - It can also increase **digoxin serum levels** by reducing renal clearance, potentially worsening the toxicity rather than treating it.
Question 52: Variation in sensitivity of response to different doses of a drug in different individuals is obtained from?
- A. Dose-response relationship (Correct Answer)
- B. Therapeutic index
- C. Bioavailability
- D. Phase 1 clinical trials
Explanation: ***Dose-response relationship*** - The **dose-response relationship** (particularly the **graded dose-response curve**) describes how the magnitude of a drug's effect changes with different doses. - When plotted for different individuals or populations, these curves reveal **variation in sensitivity** through differences in potency (horizontal shift) and efficacy (maximum response). - This relationship helps characterize inter-individual variability in drug response and is the fundamental concept for understanding differential sensitivity. *Therapeutic index* - The **therapeutic index** is a measure of drug safety, representing the ratio between the toxic dose and the effective dose (TD50/ED50 or LD50/ED50). - It does not directly explain the variation in sensitivity to different doses among individuals, but rather provides information about the drug's overall safety margin. *Bioavailability* - **Bioavailability** refers to the fraction of an administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged. - While it influences the drug concentration at the site of action, it doesn't directly measure the variability in physiological response to that concentration among individuals. *Phase 1 clinical trials* - **Phase 1 clinical trials** are the first stage of testing a new drug in humans, primarily focusing on safety, dosage range, and pharmacokinetics in a small group of healthy volunteers. - While variability in response may be observed during these trials, they are not the *pharmacological concept* that describes this variation; rather, dose-response relationships are used to interpret findings from these trials.
Question 53: Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir?
- A. Neuraminidase inhibitor (Correct Answer)
- B. Inhibitor of protein synthesis
- C. Inhibitor of thymidylate synthetase
- D. Pyrimidine analogs
Explanation: ***Neuraminidase inhibitor*** - **Oseltamivir** prevents the release of new influenza virus particles from infected cells by inhibiting **neuraminidase**, an enzyme essential for viral replication. - This inhibition limits the spread of the virus to uninfected cells, thereby reducing the severity and duration of the **flu**. *Inhibitor of protein synthesis* - This mechanism is characteristic of certain **antibiotics** (e.g., tetracyclines, macrolides) or **antitumor agents**, not antiviral medications like oseltamivir. - Inhibiting protein synthesis would interfere with the host cell's vital functions and is not the primary target for influenza antivirals. *Inhibitor of thymidylate synthetase* - **Thymidylate synthetase inhibitors** (e.g., 5-fluorouracil) are primarily used in **cancer chemotherapy** to block DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells. - This mechanism is not relevant to the action of oseltamivir against influenza virus. *Pyrimidine analogs* - **Pyrimidine analogs** (e.g., zidovudine, fluorouracil) are drugs that mimic natural pyrimidine bases and interfere with nucleic acid synthesis. - While some antivirals act as nucleoside/nucleotide analogs, this is a broader category, and oseltamivir's specific action is not as a pyrimidine analog.
Radiology
2 questionsBoot shape of heart in TOF is due to:
Identify the radiological procedure shown in the image?
NEET-PG 2019 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Boot shape of heart in TOF is due to:
- A. Right ventricular hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
- B. Enlargement of the left atrium
- C. Enlargement of the right atrium
- D. Hypertrophy of both ventricles
Explanation: ***Right ventricular hypertrophy*** - The characteristic **boot-shaped heart (coeur en sabot)** seen in Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) on a chest X-ray is primarily due to **right ventricular hypertrophy** and the small pulmonary artery. - The hypertrophied right ventricle lifts the cardiac apex, while the concavity in the area of the pulmonary artery (due to **pulmonary stenosis**) gives the heart its distinctive shape. *Enlargement of the left atrium* - Left atrial enlargement is not a feature of **Tetralogy of Fallot**; in fact, chronic pulmonary outflow obstruction often leads to a relatively normal or small left atrium. - This condition involves right-sided heart abnormalities, and left atrial enlargement would suggest increased left-sided pressures, which are not typical for TOF. *Enlargement of the right atrium* - While right atrial enlargement can occur in severe cases of TOF due to increased resistance to blood flow, it is **right ventricular hypertrophy** that is the primary determinant of the classic boot-shaped cardiac silhouette. - Right atrial enlargement alone does not create the specific "boot" appearance which is largely due to the ventricular contour. *Hypertrophy of both ventricles* - In Tetralogy of Fallot, the primary ventricular abnormality is **right ventricular hypertrophy**, driven by the need to pump blood through a stenosed pulmonary artery. - The left ventricle typically maintains a normal size and function, as it primarily pumps into the systemic circulation and is not directly affected by the primary defects in the same way as the right ventricle.
Question 52: Identify the radiological procedure shown in the image?
- A. Barium meal follow through (Correct Answer)
- B. Barium enema
- C. Enteroclysis
- D. Proctography
Explanation: ***Barium meal follow through*** - The image shows opacification of the stomach and the entire small bowel loops via oral uptake of a contrast agent, which is characteristic of a **barium meal follow-through**. - This procedure tracks the passage of **barium** from the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, through the jejunum and ileum, to assess the **small intestine's morphology and function**. *Barium enema* - A **barium enema** involves introducing contrast material rectally to visualize the **colon and rectum**, which is not depicted in this image. - The primary structures opacified in a barium enema are the **large intestine**, not the stomach and small bowel as seen here. *Enteroclysis* - **Enteroclysis** is a specialized study of the small bowel where contrast is directly instilled into the **duodenum** or **proximal jejunum** via a nasoenteric tube. - While it visualizes the small bowel, the image shows oral contrast progression from the stomach, not direct jejunal intubation. *Proctography* - **Proctography**, also known as defecography, is a dynamic study focused specifically on the **rectum and anal canal** during defecation. - This procedure is highly specific to the distal gastrointestinal tract for assessing anorectal function and does not visualize the stomach or extensive small bowel loops.