Biochemistry
2 questionsMenkes disease is caused by a deficiency of which protein?
In Krebs cycle and Urea cycle the linking amino acid is
NEET-PG 2019 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Menkes disease is caused by a deficiency of which protein?
- A. ATP7B (Wilson disease protein)
- B. Ceruloplasmin
- C. Copper-zinc superoxide dismutase
- D. ATP7A (copper-transporting ATPase) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***ATP7A (copper-transporting ATPase)*** - **Menkes disease** is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the **ATP7A gene**, which encodes a copper-transporting ATPase. - This protein is essential for **copper absorption** from the intestines and its transport across cell membranes. *ATP7B (Wilson disease protein)* - Mutations in the **ATP7B gene** cause **Wilson disease**, characterized by **copper accumulation** in the liver, brain, and other organs due to impaired copper excretion. - Unlike Menkes disease, Wilson disease involves *too much* copper in tissues, not a deficiency due to poor absorption. *Ceruloplasmin* - **Ceruloplasmin** is a copper-carrying protein that transports copper in the blood and also acts as an oxidase. - While deficiencies in ceruloplasmin can lead to **aceruloplasminemia**, a disorder of iron metabolism, it is not the primary defect in Menkes disease. *Copper-zinc superoxide dismutase* - **Copper-zinc superoxide dismutase (SOD1)** is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in eliminating harmful **reactive oxygen species**. - Mutations in SOD1 are associated with some forms of **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)**, not Menkes disease.
Question 22: In Krebs cycle and Urea cycle the linking amino acid is
- A. Fumarate
- B. Alanine
- C. Aspartate (Correct Answer)
- D. Arginine
Explanation: ***Aspartate*** - **Aspartate** acts as the crucial amino acid link between the two cycles - In the urea cycle, aspartate condenses with citrulline to form **argininosuccinate** (via argininosuccinate synthetase) - When argininosuccinate is cleaved, it produces **fumarate**, which enters the Krebs cycle - In the Krebs cycle, fumarate is converted to malate, then to **oxaloacetate**, which can be transaminated back to aspartate - This creates the **aspartate-argininosuccinate shunt**, linking both cycles through nitrogen metabolism *Fumarate* - While **fumarate** is a key metabolic intermediate connecting both cycles, it is **not an amino acid** (it's a dicarboxylic acid) - It is produced in the urea cycle from argininosuccinate cleavage and feeds into the Krebs cycle - This is a common distractor since fumarate does link the cycles, but the question specifically asks for an amino acid *Alanine* - **Alanine** participates in the glucose-alanine cycle for nitrogen transport from muscle to liver - It does not directly link the Krebs cycle and urea cycle in the same manner as aspartate *Arginine* - **Arginine** is a urea cycle intermediate that is cleaved by arginase to produce urea and ornithine - While it's an amino acid in the urea cycle, it does not serve as the linking amino acid between the Krebs cycle and urea cycle
Internal Medicine
1 questionsA 25-year-old alcoholic presented with edema, hypertension, ocular disturbance, and changes in mental state. A diagnosis of high output cardiac failure was made with Wet Beri Beri. This condition is due to a deficiency of which vitamin?
NEET-PG 2019 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 25-year-old alcoholic presented with edema, hypertension, ocular disturbance, and changes in mental state. A diagnosis of high output cardiac failure was made with Wet Beri Beri. This condition is due to a deficiency of which vitamin?
- A. Vitamin B3
- B. Vitamin B6
- C. Vitamin B9
- D. Vitamin B1 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Vitamin B1 - The constellation of **edema**, **hypertension**, **ocular disturbances**, and **mental status changes** in an **alcoholic** patient with **high-output cardiac failure** (Wet Beri Beri) is a classic presentation of **thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency** [2], [3]. - **Thiamine** is crucial for **carbohydrate metabolism** and **neurological function**, and a deficiency can lead to severe cardiovascular and neurological dysfunction, especially in chronic alcoholics due to poor absorption and increased metabolic demand [1], [3]. Vitamin B3 - Deficiency of Vitamin B3 (niacin) causes **pellagra**, characterized by the "4 D's": **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, **dementia**, and death. - While it can cause psychiatric symptoms (dementia), it does not directly lead to the specific cardiovascular manifestations of high-output cardiac failure as seen in Wet Beri Beri. Vitamin B6 - Deficiency of Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) can result in **peripheral neuropathy**, **anemia**, and **seizures**. - It is not directly linked to the cardiac and edematous symptoms characteristic of Wet Beri Beri. Vitamin B9 - Deficiency of Vitamin B9 (folate) primarily causes **megaloblastic anemia** and can lead to **neural tube defects** in developing fetuses. - While it can manifest with fatigue and weakness due to anemia, it does not typically present with the acute cardiovascular and neurological syndrome described.
Pharmacology
5 questionsWhich among the following is most probable reason for preference of Cisatracurium over atracurium?
Carbapenem which has a tendency to cause maximum seizures?
What is the drug of choice (DOC) for a scorpion sting bite?
Which of the following drugs is used in SIADH?
Which fluoroquinolone has the maximum bioavailability?
NEET-PG 2019 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which among the following is most probable reason for preference of Cisatracurium over atracurium?
- A. Decreased histamine release (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased histamine release
- C. Decreased CNS toxicity
- D. Due to elimination by non-specific plasma esterases
Explanation: ***Decreased histamine release*** - **Cisatracurium** is preferred over atracurium primarily due to its significantly **lower potential for histamine release**, which can cause undesirable side effects like **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, and **bronchospasm**. - This reduced histamine release contributes to a **more stable hemodynamic profile** and **fewer allergic-type reactions**, especially in critically ill or hemodynamically unstable patients. *Increased histamine release* - This is incorrect because **atracurium** is known to cause **more histamine release** compared to cisatracurium, which is why cisatracurium is often preferred. - Increased histamine release is an **undesirable effect** that can lead to adverse cardiovascular and respiratory reactions. *Decreased CNS toxicity* - While both drugs are **quaternary ammonium compounds** and do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier, **CNS toxicity** is not a primary concern or differentiating factor between atracurium and cisatracurium in clinical practice. - The potential for CNS effects from their metabolites (like **laudanosine**) is generally low with standard dosing, and **cisatracurium produces less laudanosine**. *Due to elimination by non-specific plasma esterases* - Both cisatracurium and atracurium are eliminated primarily by **Hofmann elimination** and **non-specific plasma esterases**. This is a shared characteristic, not a reason for cisatracurium's preference over atracurium. - **Hofmann elimination** is a non-enzymatic chemical degradation process that occurs at physiological pH and temperature, making their elimination **independent of renal or hepatic function**.
Question 22: Carbapenem which has a tendency to cause maximum seizures?
- A. Imipenem (Correct Answer)
- B. Ertapenem
- C. Doripenem
- D. Meropenem
Explanation: ***Imipenem*** - **Imipenem** is associated with the highest risk of **seizures** among the carbapenems, particularly in patients with **renal impairment**, pre-existing **CNS disorders**, or high doses. - Its high affinity for **GABA-A receptors** in the central nervous system is thought to contribute to its proconvulsant effects. *Ertapenem* - While all carbapenems carry some risk of seizures, **ertapenem** has a **lower incidence** compared to imipenem. - It is often favored in patients without CNS infections or severe renal dysfunction due to its once-daily dosing. *Doripenem* - **Doripenem** also has a relatively **low risk of seizures** compared to imipenem. - It is generally well-tolerated, with side effects similar to other carbapenems but at a reduced frequency for CNS events. *Meropenem* - **Meropenem** is known to have a **lower seizure potential** than imipenem, making it a preferred choice for patients with a history of seizures or those with CNS infections. - Its **reduced affinity** for GABA-A receptors contributes to its better CNS tolerability.
Question 23: What is the drug of choice (DOC) for a scorpion sting bite?
- A. EDTA
- B. Neostigmine
- C. N-acetylcysteine
- D. Prazosin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prazosin*** - **Prazosin** is an **alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist** that effectively counteracts the symptoms of scorpion envenomation, particularly **autonomic hyperactivity** like hypertension and tachycardia. - It works by blocking the effects of norepinephrine released by the scorpion venom, helping to stabilize vital signs and reduce cardiovascular complications. *EDTA* - **EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)** is a **chelating agent** primarily used to treat **heavy metal poisoning**, such as lead or mercury. - It binds to metal ions, forming a stable complex that can then be excreted from the body; it has no role in scorpion envenomation. *Neostigmine* - **Neostigmine** is an **acetylcholinesterase inhibitor** used to treat conditions like myasthenia gravis or to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. - It increases acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction; it is not indicated for the management of scorpion stings. *N-acetylcysteine* - **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)** is primarily used as an **antidote for acetaminophen overdose** and as a mucolytic agent in respiratory conditions. - It replenishes glutathione stores, helping to detoxify harmful metabolites; it has no direct role in treating scorpion venom effects.
Question 24: Which of the following drugs is used in SIADH?
- A. Desmopressin
- B. Terlipressin
- C. Tolvaptan (Correct Answer)
- D. Von Willebrand factor
Explanation: ***Tolvaptan*** - **Tolvaptan** is a **vasopressin receptor antagonist** that blocks the action of **antidiuretic hormone (ADH)** at the **V2 receptors** in the kidneys [1]. - This action promotes **water excretion (aquaresis)** without significantly affecting electrolyte balance, thereby increasing serum sodium levels in patients with **SIADH** [1]. *Desmopressin* - **Desmopressin** is a synthetic analog of **ADH** that primarily acts on **V2 receptors**, promoting water reabsorption [3], [4]. - It is used in conditions like **diabetes insipidus** [3], [4] or **hemophilia** [2] to increase ADH activity or clotting factors, which is contrary to the goal in SIADH. *Von Willebrand factor* - **Von Willebrand factor** is a **glycoprotein** involved in **hemostasis**, promoting platelet adhesion and carrying **factor VIII**. - It plays no role in the direct management of **SIADH** or fluid balance disorders. *Terlipressin* - **Terlipressin** is an analog of **vasopressin** that primarily acts on **V1 receptors**, causing vasoconstriction [5]. - It is used in conditions like **hepatorenal syndrome** or **esophageal variceal bleeding**, not for treating **SIADH**.
Question 25: Which fluoroquinolone has the maximum bioavailability?
- A. Gatifloxacin
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Moxifloxacin
- D. Levofloxacin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Levofloxacin*** - **Levofloxacin** exhibits high oral bioavailability, approximately 99%, meaning nearly all of the administered dose reaches systemic circulation [1]. - This high bioavailability allows for seamless transition from intravenous to oral administration without significant changes in drug exposure [1]. *Moxifloxacin* - **Moxifloxacin** has a high bioavailability of approximately 90%, which is slightly lower than levofloxacin's almost complete absorption [1]. - While excellent, it is not the absolute highest among fluoroquinolones. *Gatifloxacin* - **Gatifloxacin** has good oral bioavailability, around 96%, but it is still generally considered slightly less than that of levofloxacin [1]. - This difference, though small, makes levofloxacin the one with the highest overall bioavailability. *Ciprofloxacin* - **Ciprofloxacin** has the lowest oral bioavailability among the listed fluoroquinolones, ranging from 70% to 80% [1]. - Its absorption can be significantly impaired by co-administration with multivalent cations, leading to reduced systemic concentrations.
Physiology
2 questionsVasopressin acts through which aquaporin channels in the collecting duct?
Tubuloglomerular feedback control is useful for which one of the following?
NEET-PG 2019 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Vasopressin acts through which aquaporin channels in the collecting duct?
- A. Aquaporin 1
- B. Aquaporin 2 (Correct Answer)
- C. Aquaporin 4
- D. Aquaporin 3
Explanation: ***Aquaporin 2*** - Vasopressin (ADH) stimulates the insertion of **Aquaporin 2 (AQP2)** channels into the apical membrane of collecting duct cells, increasing water reabsorption. - This process is crucial for the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and maintain **water balance**. *Aquaporin 1* - **Aquaporin 1 (AQP1)** is predominantly found in the proximal tubules and descending limb of the loop of Henle, where **constitutive water reabsorption** occurs, independent of vasopressin. - It plays a role in bulk water reabsorption rather than regulated fine-tuning. *Aquaporin 3* - **Aquaporin 3 (AQP3)** is located on the **basolateral membrane** of collecting duct cells, facilitating the exit of water from the cell into the interstitial fluid. - While essential for water movement, its insertion into the membrane is **not directly regulated by vasopressin** in the same way as AQP2. *Aquaporin 4* - **Aquaporin 4 (AQP4)** is also found on the **basolateral membrane** of collecting duct cells and in other tissues like the brain. - Similar to AQP3, it allows water to leave the cell but is not the primary target for vasopressin-mediated regulation of water permeability.
Question 22: Tubuloglomerular feedback control is useful for which one of the following?
- A. GFR (Correct Answer)
- B. Plasma sodium
- C. Plasma volume
- D. Determining tubular secretion
Explanation: ***GFR*** - **Tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF)** is a critical autoregulatory mechanism that maintains a relatively constant **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)** despite fluctuations in arterial blood pressure. - The **macula densa** cells at the end of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle sense the **volume** and **sodium chloride concentration** of the tubular fluid and release paracrine factors to adjust afferent arteriolar resistance. *Plasma sodium* - While TGF senses the **sodium chloride concentration** in the filtrate, its primary role is to regulate GFR, not directly control systemic plasma sodium levels. - Plasma sodium is primarily regulated by hormones like **ADH** and **aldosterone**, which influence water reabsorption and sodium excretion. *Plasma volume* - **Plasma volume** is regulated predominantly by hormonal mechanisms (e.g., **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system**, **ADH**, **ANP**) and control over overall sodium and water balance, rather than by the acute, intrinsic GFR regulation of TGF. - Changes in plasma volume can indirectly affect GFR, but TGF is not the direct control mechanism for plasma volume itself. *Determining tubular secretion* - **Tubular secretion** is the process by which solutes are actively transported from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen. - TGF influences **glomerular filtration**, not directly the rates of tubular secretion, which are regulated by specific transport proteins and physiological needs.